1. Mechanism of drug action is explored by:
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacogenetics
c. pharmacoeconomics
d. pharmacodynamics
2. Therapeutic window is the dosages of a medication (therapeutic serum concentrations ) between:
a. TD
50
curve and ED50
b. ED50 and T1/2
c. the amount that gives an effect (effective doseadverse effects ) and the amount that gives more than desired effects
d. the amount that gives minimal adverse effects adverse effects and the amount that gives more
3. Therapeutic index is the ratio of:
a. LD50 over the ED50
b. ED50over the LD50
c. bioavailability over drug dose
d. apparent volume of distribution over elimination rate constant
4. Therapeutic drug monitoring means:
a. trough concentration under steady-state condition
b. measurement of medication concentrations in blood
c. amount of untoward effects following treatment
d. development of expected desired effects
5. Therapeutic dose is not related to:
a. patient’s age
b. rout of administration
c. desired therapeutic effect
d. treatment costs
6. What is the purpose of pre-clinical testing?
a. To verify that a drug is sufficiently safe and effective to be tested in humans.
b. To undergo preliminary testing in healthy humans to monitor the effects of the drug.
c. To create a basic outline for the larger scale future tests on a widespread population.
d. A and B
7. Which technique is the less common method used to protect the integrity of clinical trial results?
a. Single Blind
b. Double Blind
c. Placebo
d. Randamisation
8. What is a synonym for the Phase 4 trials?
a. Post Marketing Surveillance
b. Pre Marketing Surveillance
c. Pre FDA Approval
d. Post FDA Approval
9. In what units are Lethal Dose50 (LD50) expressed?
a. mg/ml
b. mg/kg
c. Lb/ml
d. (D) oz/kg
10. Which of the following promotes the excretion of basic drugs?
a. Tartarates
b. Citrates
c. Bicarbonates
d. Ammonium chloride
11. Mean therapeutic doses mentioned in manuals is obtained by the following way:
a. calculation of pharmacokinetic features
b. clinical investigations
c. experimental investigations
d. experimental data adopted for human body
12. Volume of distribution is the
a. Disposition of a drug throughout the body from the general circulation
b. Elimination of drugs from the body
c. Chemical processing of drugs before they will leave an organism
d. Abstract concept, which determines where is a drug distributed
13. The subjects of pharmacokinetics are all except:
a. Route of administration of the drug.
b. Biotransformation of active substance.
c. Distibution of active substance within the organism.
d. Adverse effects of the drug.
14. Which of the following is not the subject for pharmacodynamics?
a. Mechanism of action.
b. Duration of effect.
c. Phases of metabolism.
d. Affinity.
15. After administration of the drug following reactions could be observed except:
a. Therapeutic action.
b. Idiosyncrasy.
c. Tolerance.
d. Tachyphylaxis.
16. To calculate the maintenance dose (MD) we need to know
a. Time to reach the steady state (TSS)
b. Volume of distribution (Vd )
c. Clearance (Cl)
d. Rate of absorption (k)
17. Do modern TDM tools require steady state conditions for valid analysis and forecasts?
a. Yes
b. No
18. The MOST common type of medication error is,
a. Wrong drug
b. Wrong route of administration
c. Administering improper dose
d. Wrong patient
19. What type of medication error is incorrect calculation of dose to be given?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
20. All medication orders must be accompanied by the date and time the order was written or taken.
a. True
b. False
21. The duration of therapeutic effect depends on:
a.Route of administration. b.Form of the drug.
c.Elimination route.
d. All of above
22. After what half-lives steady-state concentration of drug is achieved? a. 1-2 T 1/2
b. 3-5 T ½
c. 6-8 T ½
d. 12-24 T ½
23. How do you understand elimination rate constant?
a. amount of drug, disposed in urine per day
b. amount of drug, disposed in feces per day
c. it is equivalent to the fraction of a substance that is removed per unit time measured at any particular instant
d. twofold reduction in drug concentration per day
24. Risk of adverse effects is low in the following cases:
a. long-term of drug use
b. impairment of organs where biotransformation takes place
c. elderly patients
d. simultaneous use of drugs with the same adverse reactions
25. Pharmacokinetic interactions include one of the following:
a. drug action on receptors
b. enhancement of pharmacologic effect
c. attenuation of pharmacological effects
d. influence of drug on another one following the same route of administration
26. Name methods used to evaluate drug safety and effectiveness:
a. laboratory studies
b. physical examination
c. recording patient symptoms
d. all of the above
27. One of the following drugs inhibits tetracycline absorption.
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. calcium-containing drugs
c. potassiumcontaining -medicines
d. phosphoruscontaining -compounds
28. Which drug induces bilirubin biotransformation?
a. serotonin
b. epinephrine
c. phenobarbital
d. dopamine
29. In emergency states we should take into account one of the following:
a. changes in drug absorption time
b. changes in drug absorption ammount
c. blood рН
d. gastric рН
30. Pharmacological agents are used in therapeutics to
a. Kill agents caused inflammatory, etc.
b. Cure disease
c. Aggravate symptoms
d. Stimulate or inhibit hormone production
31. Bioavailability is the
a. Proportion of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in unchanged form
b. Bioavailability is the kind of susceptibility of body tissues to the given drug
c. Proportion of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
d. Ability of administered drug to reach its target of action
32. Choose the pharmacological group, which produces action on ion channels
a. Antiarrhythmic drugs
b. Sulfonamides
c. Antipsychotic drugs
d. Biguanides
33. A medicine-food interaction happens when a medicine interacts with a substance in a food or beverage.
a. True
b. False
34. Drug-induced diseases are adverse effects of drugs on different organs or parts of the body.
a. True
b. False
35. DID of chronic kidney failure. can cause by
a. Gold
b. thiazide
c. Cyclosporine and tacrolimus
d. penicilin
36. Hormone replacement therapies can cause breast cancer
a. True
b. False
37. Which characteristic is correct relatively to impaired renal function?
a. Decrement of drug concentration in blood
b. Increased elimination of drugs
c. Decreased clearance of drugs
d. Enhance in protein binding capacity
38. The MOST common type of medication error is:
a. Wrong drug
b. Wrong route of administration
c. Administering improper dose
d. Wrong patient
39. What type of medication error is a prescription for a client with known allergy or intolerance?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
40. What type of medication error is the use of unapproved abbreviations?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
41. All medication orders must be accompanied by the date and time the order was written or taken.
a. True
b. False
42. Administration errors account for what percentageof medication errors? a. 5% to 12%
b. 15% to 24%
c. 26% to 32%
d. 50% to 75%
43. What type of medication error is incorrect calculation of dose to be given?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
44. What type of medication error is forgetting to give the patient the medication?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
45. What type of medication error is an incorrect administration technique or route?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
46. What type of medication error is unauthorized substitution of medications?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
47. Every IV medication has the same rate of infusion.
a. True
b. False
48. The renal clearance of a drug bound to plasma protein is increased after displacement with another drug.
a. True
b. False
49. Which of the following promotes excretion of acidic drugs?
a. Citrates
b. Ammonium chloride
c. Methionine
d. Ascorbic acid
50. Which of the following promotes the excretion of basic drugs?
a. Tartarates
b. Citrates
c. Bicarbonates
d. Ammonium chloride
51. This is the equation for the calculation of creatinine clearance. Which age group does the Clcr = 0.48 H / Scr *[W/70]0.7 formula belong to?
a) 1-6 years
b) 1-20 years
c) Males above 20 years
d) Females above 20 years
52. This is the equation for the calculation of creatinine clearance. Which age group does the Clcr = (140 – Age) W / 72 * Scr formula belong to?
a) 1-6 years
b) 1-20 years
c) Males above 20 years
d) Females above 20 years
53. This is the equation for the calculation of creatinine clearance. Which age group does the Clcr = (140 – Age) W / 85 * Scr formula belong to?
a) 1-6 years
b) 1-20 years
c) Males above 20 years
d) Females above 20 years
54. A girl with age 21 has height 240cm, weight 55kg, serum creatinine of 0.8mg will have
_ creatinine clearance.
a) 80 ml/min
b) 90 ml/min
c) 96.25 ml/min
d) 85 ml/min
55. An adult male with age 22 has height 240cm, weight 85kg, serum creatinine of 0.8mg will have creatinine clearance.
a) 150 ml/min
b) 160 ml/min
c) 170.13 ml/min
d) 174.131 ml/min
56. Which creatinine clearance value shows moderate renal failure? a) 120-130 ml/min
b) 20-50 ml/min
c) Below 10 ml/min
d) 70-80 ml/min
57. Which creatinine clearance value shows severe renal failure? a) 120-130 ml/min
b) 20-50 ml/min
c) Below 10 ml/min
d) 70-80 ml/min
58. Drugs in patients with renal impairment have same pharmacokinetic profile as in a person without renal failure.
a) True
b) False
59. Which kind of membrane is used in haemodialysis?
a) Artificial Semipermeable membrane
b) Permeable membrane
c) Natural semipermeable membrane of the peritoneal cavity
d) Artificial permeable membrane
60. Which kind of membrane is used in haemodialysis?
a) Artificial Semipermeable membrane
b) Permeable membrane
c) Natural semipermeable membrane of peritoneal cavity
d) Artificial permeable membrane
Answer Key
1. d
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. d
6. a
7. a
8. a
9. b
10. d
11. a
12. a
13. d
14. c
15. d
16. c
17. b
18. c
19. d
20. a
21. d
22. c
23. c
24. a
25. d
26. d
27. b
28. b
29. b
30. b
31. c
32. a
33. a
34. a
35. c
36. a
37. c
38. c
39. a
40. b
41. a
42. c
43. d
44. d
45. d
46. d
47. b
48. a
49. a
50. a
51. b
52. c
53. d
54. c
55. d
56. b
57. c
58. b
59. a
60. c