1. What is the purpose of pre-clinical testing?
a. To verify that a drug is sufficiently safe and effective to be tested in humans.
b. To undergo preliminary testing in healthy humans to monitor the effects of the drug.
c. To create a basic outline for the larger scale future tests on a widespread population.
d. All of above
2. On which two criteria does the FDA classify NDAs?
a. Novelty of the active ingredient and time to market
b. Balance between safety and effectiveness
c. Novelty of the active ingredient and clinical improvement
d. Clinical improvement and effectiveness of product
3. Which is the primary goal/major milestone of preclinical development?
a. Filing an IND application with the FDA
b. Identifying the target population for the lead compound that is being developed
c. Aligning the development process with the strategic aims of the company
d. To determine anticipated revenue
4. What is NOT a true statement about Phase 4 Trials?
a. Phase 4 trials are typically not randomized/placebo controlled
b. Phase 4 trials are typically when the product is finalized and submitted for patent protection
c. Phase 4 trials may include new populations in which to test the drug
d. Phase 4 trials may include new formulations and/or adjusted dosing regimens
5. On what does Phase 3 trials test?
a. Animals
b. Healthy human volunteers
c. Widespread differentiated population
d. People with the target disease/condition
6. Which phase in clinical development is the largest investment of both time and money?
a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4
7. The MOST common type of medication error is:
a. Wrong drug
b. Wrong route of administration
c. Administering improper dose
d. Wrong patient
8. What type of medication error is a prescription for a client with known allergy or intolerance?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
9. What type of medication error is the use of unapproved abbreviations?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
10. All medication orders must be accompanied by the date and time the order was written or taken.
a. True
b. False
11. Administration errors account for what percentageof medication errors? a. 5% to 12%
b.15% to 24%
c. 26% to 32%
d.50% to 75%
12. What type of medication error is incorrect calculation of dose to be given?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
13. What type of medication error is forgetting to give the patient the medication?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
14. What type of medication error is an incorrect administration technique or route?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
15. What type of medication error is unauthorized substitution of medications?
a. Prescription error
b. Transcription error
c. Dispensing error
d. Administration error
16. Every IV medication has the same rate of infusion.
a. True
b. False
17. The renal clearance of a drug bound to plasma protein is increased after displacement with another drug.
a. True
b. False
18. The duration of therapeutic effect depends on:
a. Route of administration.
b. Form of the drug.
c. Elimination route.
d. All of above
19. After what half-lives steady-state concentration of drug is achieved?
a. 1-2 T 1/2
b. 3-5 T ½
c. 6-8 T ½
d. 12-24 T ½
20. How do you understand elimination rate constant?
a. amount of drug, disposed in urine per day
b. amount of drug, disposed in feces per day
c. it is equivalent to the fraction of a substance that is removed per unit time measured at any particular instant
d. twofold reduction in drug concentration per day
21. Risk of adverse effects is low in the following cases:
a. long-term of drug use
b. impairment of organs where biotransformation takes place
c. elderly patients
d. simultaneous use of drugs with the same adverse reactions
22. Pharmacokinetic interactions include one of the following:
a. drug action on receptors
b. enhancement of pharmacologic effect
c. attenuation of pharmacological effects
d. influence of drug on another one following the same route of administration
23. Drug absorption following oral administration:
a. Is most commonly through passive diffusion
b. Occurs predominantly in the colon
c. Is usually complete within 90 minutes
b. Peptides are well absorbed following oral administration
24. The following drugs are absorbed predominantly through active transport systems:
a. Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
b. Phenytoin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Methyldopa
25. The systemic bioavailability of the following oral drugs is increased if taken in the fasting state:
a. Amoxicillin
b. Levodopa
c. Acetylsalicylic acid/salicylates
d. Fluconazole
26. The following drugs are effectively administered via the sublingual route:
a. Simvastatin
b. Carbamazepine
c. Ramipril
d. Buprenorphine
27. The following drugs are effectively administered by the rectal route to produce their systemic effect:
a. Indometacin
b. Sulfasalazine
c. Ornidazol
d. Glycerin
28. The following drugs may be administered transcutaneously to produce their systemic therapeutic effect:
a. Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)
b. Estradiol
c. Fentanyl
d. All of them
29. In the case of an intramuscular injection of a drug:
a. Rate of drug absorption is enhanced by exercise
b. Rate of drug absorption is greater from the deltoid injection site
c. If administered to the buttock should be in the upper outer quadrant
d. All of them
30. The following are commonly associated with phlebitis when given via the intravenous route:
a. Potassium chloride
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Diazepam
d. Both a & c
31. The following are metabolized by enzymes in the hepatic smooth endoplasmic reticulum:
a. Levodopa
b. Tyramine
c. Metoprolol
d. Suxamethonium
32. The following are substrates for CYP3A:
a. Diazepam
b. Clarithromycin
c. Tyramine
d. Adrenaline (epinephrine)
33. The following drugs undergo phase II metabolism by hepatic acetylation enzymes (N- acetyltransferases):
a. Dapsone
b. Ciclosporin
c. Tyramine
d. Isoniazid
34. The following agents induce hepatic CYP450:
a. Rifampicin
b. Carbamazepine
c. St John’s wort
d. All of above
35. The following inhibit at least one of the hepatic CYP450 isoenzymes:
a. Fluconazole
b. Grapefruit juice
c. Digoxin
d. Dizepam
36. The following are subject to extensive presystemic (first-pass)metabolism:
a. Metoprolol
b. Phenytoin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Both b & c
37. Glucocorticosteroids inhibit:
a. Platelet thromboxane A2 synthesis
b. Histamine release
c. Leukotriene C4 and D4 synthesis
d. All of above
38. The following agents are used to prevent or treat graft-versus-host disease:
a. Methylprednisolone
b. Ciclosporin
c. Mycophenolate mofetil
d. All of above
39. Adverse effects associated with ciclosporin include:
a. Reduced glomerular filtration pressure leading to nephrotoxicity
b. leukopenia
c. Alopecia
d. Hypokalaemia
40. Administration of basiliximab (IL-2 receptor blocking antibody) may cause the following side-effects:
a. Fever and chills
b. Aseptic meningitis
c. Cardiomyopathy
d. Asthma
41. Mycophenolate mofetil:
a. Is a prodrug
b. Causes leukopenia
c. Is used as adjunct therapy in solid organ transplantation
d. All of them
42. Natalizumab is indicated in the treatment of refractory:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Eczema
c. Asthma
d. Multiple sclerosis
43. The following agents inhibit the metabolism of ciclosporin:
a. Itraconazole
b. ranitidine
c. Rifampicin
d. Gentamicin
44. The following are indicated in the management of acute anaphylactic shock following a bee sting out of hospital and without monitoring facilities:
a. Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) (0.5–1 mL, 1 in 1000)
b. Intravenous adrenaline (epinephrine) (10 mL, 1 in 10 000)
c. Intravenous prednison
d. Intravenous chlorpheniramine
45. Azathioprine:
a. Is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine
b. Is administered by continuous infusion
c. Causes motion sickness
d. Concurrent allopurinol increases the clearance of azathioprine
46. Cyclophosphamide is used as an immunosuppressive in the following diseases:
a. Pneumoconiosis (silicosis)
b. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
c. Nephrotic syndrome without minimal microscopic glomerular changes
d. Nephritis due to systemic lupus erythematosus
47. Fexofenadine:
a. Is a competitive antagonist at the H1 receptor
b. Is used as a sedative in children
c. Is effective treatment for motion sickness
d. Plasma concentrations when very high can lead to prolonged QTc and torsades de pointes
48. The following are successfully used in the management of allergic rhinitis (hayfever):
a. Oral H3 receptor antagonists
b. Desensitization with a mix of grass pollen, cat dander and house dust mite
c. Nasal sodium cromoglicate
d. Nasal terbutaline
49. Annual immunization with influenza vaccine is strongly recommended for individuals aged over six months with the following conditions:
a. Immunosuppression because of prolonged corticosteroid treatment
b. Diabetes mellitus requiring insulin or oral hypoglycaemic drugs
c. Patients with chronic lung disease
d. All of them
50. Methadone:
a. Has no potential to cause dependence
b. Can only be prescribed to registered addicts by doctors with a special licence
c. Is usually administered as an inhaler
d. Depresses the BP
51. The following are clinical signs consistent with heroin (diamorphine) intoxication:
a. All of them
b. Rapid respiratory rate
c. Hypothermia
d. Pinpoint pupils
52. Features of the opioid withdrawal syndrome include:
a. Yawning
b. Rhinorrhoea
c. Mydriasis
d. All of them
53. Specific causes of death which are positively related to smoking include:
a. All of them
b. Cancer of the oesophagus
c. Emphysema
d. Aortic aneurysm
54. There is an increased rate of metabolism of the following drugs in smokers:
a. Diazepam
b. Phenytoin
c. Ethanol
d. Theophylline
55. Ethyl alcohol (ethanol):
a. The majority of oral ethanol is absorbed from the small intestine
b. Ethanol delays gastic emptying
c. 95 per cent of ingested ethanol is metabolized
d. All of above
56. Cardiovascular complications associated with alcohol consumption include:
a. Buerger’s disease
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Coronary artery disease
d. Peripheral vascular disease
57. Delirium tremens:
a. Occurs in approximately 60 per cent of patients withdrawing from alcohol
b. Has a mortality of 5–10 per cent
c. Benzodiazepines are contraindicated
d. Phenytoin should be administered prophylactically to preventconvulsions
58. Chronic use of anabolic steroids is associated with:
a. Pancreatitis
b. Ototoxicity
c. Hepatic tumours
d. Peripheral neuropathy
59. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-methylamphetamine (MDMA or ecstasy):
a. All of them
b. Has mixed hallucinogenic and stimulant properties
c. Occasionally causes hyperpyrexia
d. In chronic use has been associated with increased impulsivity and impaired memory
60. The combination of coma, dilated pupils, hyperreflexia and tachycardia is consistent with overdose of the following drugs when taken alone:
a. Co-dydramol
b. Aspirin
c. Amitriptyline
d. Lorazepam
Answer Key
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. d
6. c
7. c
8. a
9. b
10. a
11. c
12. d
13. d
14. d
15. d
16. b
17. a
18. d
19. c
20. c
21. a
22. d
23. a
24. d
25. a
26. d
27. a
28. d
29. d
30. d
31. c
32. b
33. a
34. d
35. b
36. d
37. d
38. d
39. a
40. a
41. d
42. d
43. a
44. a
45. a
46. d
47. a
48. c
49. d
50. b
51. a
52. d
53. a
54. d
55. d
56. b
57. a
58. c
59. a
60. c