1. An antibiotic is a type of antimicrobial substance active against.
a. Bacteria
b. Fungal infections
c. Urinary infections
c. Bladder infections
2. Many antibacterial compounds are relatively small molecules with a molecular weight of less than…..
a. 1023 daltons
b. 1000 daltons
c. 1939daltons
d. None
3. Since the first pioneering efforts of Howard Florey and Chain in…………
a. 1931
b. 1938
c. 1932
d. 1939
4. β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as………..
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Benzoic acid
d. None
5. β-lactams containing thiazolidine rings are named……………..
a. Clavams
b. Penams
c. Both a & b
d. None
6. β-lactams containing 3,6-dihydro-2H-1,3-oxazine rings are named……….
a. Clavams
b. Oxacephems
c. Carboxylic acid
d. None
7. Pka of penicillin is………………
a. 2.1-3.0
b. 2.2-3.0
c. 2.5-3.0
d. both a & b
8. Penicillin contains basic group – zwitter ion – pka……. a.7.4
b 7.2
c. 7.5
d. None
9. Cephalosporins were discovered in 1945, and first sold in……………..
a. 1961
b. 1964
c. 1966
d. None
10. The bactericidal action of aztreonam results from the inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis due to a high affinity of aztreonam for penicillin binding protein.
a. 5 (PBP5)
b. 4 (PBP4)
c. 3 (PBP3)
d. None
11. The signs and symptoms of malaria typically begin……………..
a. 8–25 days
b. 8–20 days
c. 8–21 days
d. None
12. P. malariae. P. falciparum infection can cause recurrent fever every.
a. 36– 44 hours
b. 36–48 hours
c. 36–40 hours
d. None
13. Symptoms of falciparum malaria arise……………….
a. 9–15 days after infection
b. 9–20 days after infection
c. 9–30 days after infection
d. None
14. Quinoline is a heterocyclic aromatic organic compound with the chemical formula a C9H7
b. C9H7N
c. RSO2NH3
d. RSO2NH2
15. Quinoline was first extracted from coal tar in………………..
a. 1834
b. 1839
c. 1831
d. None
16. Quinine is also used to treat…………………
a. Lupus and arthritis.
b. Lupus
c. Arthritis.
d. None
17. Chloroquine was discovered in………………
a. 1932
b. 1930
c. 1934
d. none
18. Amodiaquine was first made in……………..
a. 1948
b. 1942
c. 1946
d. 1940
19. Primaquine should not be given to people with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency due to the……………….
a . Fungal infections
b. Risk of red blood cell breakdown
c. Bladder infections
d. None
20. Mepacrine also called………………….
a. Quinacrine
b. Amodiaquine
c. Quinoline
d. None
21. The original WHO guidance on the management of MDR-TB was issued in: a. 1996
b. 1999
c. 1994
d. 2001
22. Which of the Following is GOLD STANDARD for active TB test?
a. Sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli
b. Sputum culture
c. Nucleic acid amplification test
d. Chest X-ray
23. TB Infection spread through.
a. Spores
b. Respiratory droplets
c. Both A & B
d. None
24. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that usually affects them.
a. Lungs
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Heart
25. Latent TB - the bacteria remain in the body in an:
a. Inactive state
b. Active
c. Bothe A & B
d. None
26. About one-third of the world's population is believed to have:
a. Latent TB
b. Active TB
c. Bothe A & B
d. None
27. Hard, red bump has swollen up to a specific size, then it is likely that.
a. TB is present
b. TB is absent
c. Jaundice present
d. None
28. For advanced stage tuberculosis, symptoms include.
a. Chest pain
b. Difficulty breathing
c. Cough
d. Bothe A & B
29. Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of mycoloic acids.
a. RNA Synthesis
b. Mycoloic acids
c. Enoyl reductase
d. None
30. Ethambutol inhibits.
a. Arabinosyl transferases
b. Mycoloic acids
c. Enoyl reductase
d. None
31. The fundamentals on MDR/XDR-TB treatment were published in the 2006 and 2008.
a. The 2004 and 2008 b The 2006 and 2008
c. The 2002 and 2008
d. The 2005 and 2008
32. Cycloserine was discovered in. a. 1958
b 1954
c. 1959
d. 1957
33. A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection that affects part of the urinary tract.
a. Respiratory tract
b. Urinary tract.
c. Both A& B
d. None
34. When it affects the lower urinary tract it is known as:
a. Bladder infection
b. Cystitis
c. Both A& B
d. None
35. When it affects the upper urinary tract it is known as:
a. Bladder infection
b. Cystitis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. None
36. Evidence exists for Nalidixic acid that it’s active metabolite.
a. Acetic acid
b. Hydroxynalidixic acid
c. Both A& B
d. None
37. Nalidixic acid may also cause.
a. Convulsions
b. Hyperglycaemia
c. Both A& B
d. None
38. The bactericidal action of Gatifloxacin results from inhibition of the enzymes.
a. Topoisomerase II
b. Antopoisomerase IV
c. Both A& B
d. None
39. Moxifloxacin is a quinolone/fluoroquinolone antibiotic. Moxifloxacin can be used to treat infections caused by the following bacteria:
a. Haemolyticus,
b .Staphylococcus hominis,
c. Staphylococcus warneri
d. All above
40. Dose of moxifloxacin. a. 7.5—10 mg/kg/
b. 8.5—10 mg/kg/
c. Both A& B
d. None
41. Metabolism of Sparfloxacin
a. Phase II glucuronidation
b. Phase I
c. Reduction
d. All above
42. More acidic environment (pH<6), methenamine is hydrolyzed to:
a. Acetaldehyde
b. Formaldehyde
c. Both A& B
d. Butyldehyde
43. Antifungal drugs are a class of medication used specifically for treating.
a. Viral infections.
b. Urinary tract infections.
c. Both A& B
d. fungal infection
44. Mycoses often start in the:
a. Lung.
b. Skin
c. Both A& B
d. None
45. Hair loss may occur in:
a. mycoses
b. cystitis
c. Dermatophytosis
d. None
46. Otomycosis is a fungal ear infection, a superficial mycotic infection of the outer.
a. Ear canal
b. Eye
c. Both A& B
d. None
47. Natamycin inhibits fungal growth by binding to:
a. Sterols
b. Cell
c. CD6 molecule
d. None
48. Clotrimazole interacts with yeast, a.
a. 14-α demethylase
b. Cytochrome P-450 enzyme
c. Both A& B
d. Nucleic acid.
49 Econazole is an antifungal medication of the:
a. Iimidazole class
b. Pyrimidine
c. Furan
d. Both a and b
50. Itraconazole may also inhibit endogenous respiration, interact with membrane.
a. Phospholipids
b. Proteine.
c. Nucleic acid
d. Cytochrome P-450 enzyme
51. Naftifine is a synthetic, broad spectrum, antifungal agent and:
a. Allylamine derivative
b. Proteine. Derivative
c. Both a & b
d. None
52 Terconazole primarily undergoes - and O-dealkylation.
a. Oxidatative N
b. O-dealkylation
c. Both a & b
d. Butyldehyde
53. Vermifuges means……………
a. Those that stun
b. Those that kill
c. Both A& B
d. None
54. Vermicides means
a. Those that stun b. Those that kill
c. Both A& B d. None
55. Anthelmintics are used to treat people who are infected by helminths, a condition called…………..
a. Helminthiasis
b. Viral infections
c. Amoeba infections
d. None
56. Antiparasitics that specifically target Ascaris worms are called…………….
a. Eukaryotes
b. Ascaricides
c. Both A& B
d. None
57. Diethylcarbamazine continues to be the mainstay for treatment of patients with lymphatic…………...
a. Filariasis
b. Loiasis
c. Both A& B
d. None
58. 2-Substituted benzimidazole first introduced in……………..
a. 1962
b. 1964
c. 1963
d. none
59. Thiabendazole is a…………….
a. Fungicide
b. Parasiticide
c. None
d. Both A&B
60. Mebendazole came into use in………………………..
a. 1972 b. 1971
c. 1976 d. 1987
61. This drug is acyclovir. Which of the following statements about it is true?
a) Acyclovir has a molecular weight of 236
b) Acyclovir has a calculated log P of -1.6
c) Acyclovir has three hydrogen bond acceptors
d) Acyclovir has seven hydrogen bond donors
a) Gentamicin is a synthetic antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
b) Gentamicin obeys all Lipinski's rules and is orally active
c) Gentamicin has more than 5 hydrogen-bond donors
d) Gentamicin is one of the safest antibiotics in use.
63.
The drug shown is called ketoconazole. What sort of drug is it?
a) An antifungal agent
b) An antibacterial agent
c) An anticancer agent
d) An illegal recreational drug
64. Ketoconazole isn't really a ketone. What is the functional group containing the carbonyl (C=O)?
a) Ester
b) Aldehyde
c) Acid anhydride
d) Amide
65. This drug is amoxicillin. How is it normally manufactured?
a) By total synthesis
b) By semi-synthesis from 6-aminopenicillanic acid
c) It is a natural product isolated from a fungus
d) It is produced from penicillin G by genetic engineering
66.
The molecule shown is:
a) levofloxacin
b) ofloxacin
c) nalidixic acid
d) ciprofloxacin
67. How many chiral centres does gentamicin have?
a) 9
b) 11
c) 13
d) 15
68. Diethylene glycol is the poison responsible for the death of 107 people in Oklahoma in 1937.
Which of the following is an effective antidote for diethylene glycol poisoning and why?
a) Ethanol because diethylene glycol competes with ethanol on alcohol dehydrogenase.
b) Water because diethylene glycol is very water-soluble and can be diluted out of the system
c) A bezoar
d) Charcoal, which absorbs the diethylene glycol
69. Patients with penicillin allergies are frequently allergic to another class of antibiotics. Which one?
a) Cephalosporins
b) Macrolides
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Fluoroquinolones
70. Which of these drugs has been developed through the use of structure-activity relationships
a) Aspirin
b) Gentamicin
c) Erythromycin A
d) Atorvastatin
71. Which of the following statements is untrue?
a) A bacterial cell is prokaryotic whereas an animal cell is eukaryotic.
b) A bacterial cell has a cell wall whereas an animal cell does not.
c) Bacterial and animal cells both have a well-defined nucleus.
d) Bacteria may contain enzymes that are not present in animal cells.
72. Which of the following is the general mechanism of action for erythromycin?
a) Inhibition of a metabolic enzyme
b) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
c) Disruption of protein synthesis
d) Inhibition of nucleic acid transcription and replication
73. The following general structure is representative of sulphonamides. Which of the following statements is true for active sulphonamides?
a) R1 can be H or an alkyl group
b) R2 must be hydrogen
c) The aromatic ring is essential
d) The sulphonamide functional group can be replaced with an ester
74. Which of the following statements is true regarding the properties of benzylpenicillin?
a) It is a bacteriostatic agent.
b) It is active over a wide range of bacterial species.
c) It is resistant to β-lactamases.
d) Certain individuals may have an allergic response to it.
75. What crucial feature of a penicillin is involved in its mechanism of action?
a) Carboxylic acid
b) β-lactam ring
c) Acyl side chain
d) Thiazolidine ring
76. What reaction is catalysed by a β-lactamase enzyme?
a) The final cross-linking reaction to form the bacterial cell wall
b) The hydrolysis of the acyl side chain from penicillin structures
c) The hydrolysis of the four-membered ring present in penicillins
d) The biosynthesis of the penicillin structure from the amino acids valine and cysteine
77. The following structure (methicillin) was an important penicillin that was introduced in the 1960s to counter the threat of penicillin-resistant strains of S. aureus.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the above structure?
a) There is no electron withdrawing group on the side chain, and so it is acid sensitive.
b) It can be taken orally.
c) It is more active than penicillin G.
d) It has a broader spectrum of activity compared to penicillin G.
78. Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why Gram negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillins than Gram positive bacteria?
a) Gram negative bacteria have a thicker cell wall
b) Gram negative bacteria have an outer hydrophilic membrane that acts as an extra barrier
c) Gram negative bacteria can concentrate β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space
d) Gram negative bacteria produce smaller quantities of transpeptidase enzyme
79. What role does the acetoxy group at the 3-position of cephalosporins have in enhancing antibacterial activity?
a) It acts as a steric shield and masks enzymatic attack at the β-lactam ring.
b) It acts as a good leaving group when the β-lactam ring is opened.
c) It takes part in a transesterification reaction with the carboxylic acid group at position 4.
d) It increases the reactivity of the β-lactam ring by neighbouring group participation.
80. The following structure (cefalexin) is a first generation cephalosporin.
Which of the following statements is true for the methyl substituent at position 3?
a) It is a good leaving group
b) It is generally good for activity
c) It is good for oral activity
d) It acts as a steric shield
81. What is the target for clavulanic acid?
a) The transpeptidase enzyme
b) L-ala racemase
c) β-lactamase
d) Penicillin acylase
82. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
83. Which of the following antibiotics is a tetracycline?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
84. Which of the following antibiotics is responsible for Gray Baby Syndrome?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
85. The following structure is a synthetic antibacterial agent.
To which group of compounds does the structure belong?
a) Aminoacridines
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Tetracyclines
86. The following antibiotic structure is an intercalating agent. What role does the ionic group serve in making this molecule an effective intercalating agent?
a) It increases water solubility allowing high dose levels to be used.
b) It interacts with charged phosphate groups in DNA to stabilise intercalation.
c) It acts as a strong hydrogen bond donor with nucleic acid bases to stabilise intercalation.
d) It only becomes protonated when it enters cells and so becomes trapped within the cell leading to high concentrations of drug.
87. Which term best describes the mechanism of action for fluoroquinolones?
a) Alkylating agent
b) Antisense agent
c) Chain cutter
d) Topoisomerase poison
88. The following antibacterial agent was used in the Second World War.
What is the name of the structure?
a) Erythromycin
b) Proflavine
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Rifampicin
89. The following antibacterial agent was used in the Second World War.
Which of the following terms best describes its mechanism of action?
a) Alkylating agent
b) Chain cutter
c) Antisense agent
d) Intercalating agent
90. The following structure is a synthetic antibacterial agent called ciprofloxacin.
What is its mechanism of action?
a) Topoisomerase poison
b) Metallating agent
c) Chain terminator
d) Antisense agent
91. The following anticancer agent is called busulfan.
What is the drug's mode of action?
a) Metallating agent
b) Intercalator
c) Chain terminator
d) Alkylating agent
92. The following structure is an intercalating anticancer agent.
What is it called?
a) Doxorubicin
b) Dactinomycin
c) Mitoxantrone
d) Bleomycin
93. What is the mode of action of the anticancer agent calicheamicin γ1?
a) Alkylating agent
b) Chain cutting agent
c) Antisense agent
d) Intercalating agent
94. The following structure is an antitumour agent derived from a bacterium.
What is the name of the agent?
a) Calicheamicin γ1
b) Adozelesin
c) Dacarbazine
d) Oblimersen
95. What is the mode of action for the anthracycline anticancer agents?
a) Alkylating agents
b) Chain cutting agents
c) Antisense agents
d) Intercalating agents
96. The following structure is used in the treatment of brain tumours.
What is the structure called?
a) Carmustine
b) Lomustine
c) Streptozotocin
d) Cyclophosphamide
97. The following agent is used for the treatment of testicular and ovarian cancers.
Which of the following statements is untrue regarding the above structure?
a) The chlorine groups are displaced before the drug becomes active.
b) Intrastrand cross linking of DNA results from the action of the agent.
c) Base pairing between adenine and thymine is disrupted by the agent.
d) The compound acts as a metallating agent
98. What term is used to indicate the ability of a cancer to invade other parts of the body and to produce secondary tumours?
a) Carcinogenesis
b) Apoptosis
c) Metastasis
d) Mutagenesis
99. Which molecules are involved in the anchoring of cells to an extracellular matrix?
a) Integrins
b) Interleukins
c) Angiostatin
d) Cyclins
100. Cyclophosphamide is commonly used in anticancer therapy.
Which of the following statements is not true of the above structure?
a) It is relatively non-toxic.
b) It acts as a prodrug.
c) It cannot be taken orally.
d) The structure is metabolised to release acrolein.
101. What is the name of the following anticancer drug?
a) Spongistatin 1
b) Cryptophycin 1
c) Phyllanthoside
d) Maytansine 1
102. The following structure is an inhibitor of the enzyme responsible for adding a farnesyl chain to the Ras protein.
Which feature binds to the zinc cofactor of the enzyme?
a) The tricyclic system
b) The piperazine ring
c) The aromatic ring
d) The imidazole ring
103. The following structure is a natural product having anticancer properties, which was isolated from a marine worm.
What is it called?
a) Pancratistatin
b) Cephalostatin 1
c) Bryostatin 1
d) Dolostatin 15
104. What is the term used to indicate the growth of new blood vessels?
a) Biosynthesis
b) Angiogenesis
c) Apoptosis
d) Metastasis
105. Which of the following inhibits angiogenesis?
a) VEGF
b) FGF-2
c) Angiostatin
d) Interleukin-6
106. The tetracyclines act as intercalating anticancer agents.
Which of the following is a simplified analogue of tetracyclines?
a) Mitoxantrone
b) Teniposide
c) Daunorubicin
d) Dactinomycin
107. Pentostatin is a natural product used for the treatment of leukaemia.
What is the role of the region shown in blue?
a) Transition-state isostere
b) Transition-state analogue
c) Suicide substrate
d) Transition-state bioisostere
108. What is the name of the following anticancer drug?
a) Spongistatin 1
b) Cryptophycin 1
c) Phyllanthoside
d) Maytansine 1
109. Imatinib is an important anticancer drug which targets a protein kinase.
The piperazine ring has an important interaction with an amino acid in the binding site. Which amino acid is involved?
a) Aspartic acid
b) Glutamic acid
c) Methionine
d) Leucine
110. The following structure is called marimastat and is a matrix metalloproteinase inhibitor that has undergone clinical trials for the treatment of breast and prostate cancers.
What role is played by the hydroxamic acid group?
a) It acts as a transition-state isostere.
b) It binds to the zinc ion cofactor.
c) It binds to a binding sub pocket in the active site.
d) It acts as a steric shield.
111. The following structure is a natural product currently being studied as an anticancer agent.
What is the name of the structure?
a) Thalidomide
b) Fumagillin
c) Depsipeptide
d) Aclarubicin
112. What sort of therapy involves administration of an antibody linked to an enzyme, such that the enzyme activates a prodrug?
a) ADAPT
b) GDAPT
c) ADEPT
d) GDEPT
113. Match the following with correct IUPAC nomenclatures
i. 6-MP A. 3,7-dihydropurine-6-thione
ii. 6-TG B. 5-Fluoro-1H,3H-pyrimidine-2,4-dione
iii. 5-FU C. 3,7-dihydropurine-6-thione
D. (2S)-2-[[4-[(2,4-diaminopteridin-6-yl)methyl-
iv. Mtx methylamino]benzoyl]amino]pentanedioic acid
a) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
b) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B
c) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A
d) i-C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D
114. How many statements below are true with respect to the SAR of the drug 5-Flourouracil?
• SH at 4th position will decrease the activity of drug.
• Substituent which are bulky in nature at Y position will produce negative effect on activity due to steric hindrance.
• Electron withdrawing groups at 5th position will increase the activity of drug.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
115. The drug 5-Flourourcil is found in which form?
a) Yellow liquid form
b) White buffy powder form
c) Reddish brown crystal form
d) White crystalline form
116. Which is the correct statements with respect to the method of synthesis of the drug 5- Flourouracil?
a) Florine is reacted with uracil
b) Florine is reacted with benzil
c) Chlorine is reacted with uracil
d) Chlorine is reacted with benzyl
117. Which amongst the following is NOT a therapeutic use of drug 5-FU?
a) Colon cancer treatment
b) Anal cancer treatment
c) GIT cancer treatment
d) Rheumatoid Arthritis treatment
118. The correct classification of the drug 5-Flourouracil can be?
a) Nitrogen mustard
b) Vinca alkaloids
c) Antiandrogens
d) Antimetabolite
119. How many number of rings are found in the chemical structure of the drug 5-Flourouracil?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
120. What is the correct IUPAC name of cyclophosphamide? a)2-Chloro-N,N-bis-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methylethan-1-amine
b) (RS)-N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)-1,3,2-oxazaphosphinan-2-amine 2-oxide c)2-Chloro-N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methylethan-1-amine
d) 1,3,2-oxazaphosphinan-2-amine 2-oxide
Answer Key:
Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans
1 A 21 A 41 A 61 B 81 C 101 B
2 B 22 A 42 B 62 C 82 C 102 D
3 D 23 C 43 D 63 A 83 B 103 B
4 A 24 A 44 C 64 D 84 A 104 B
5 A 25 A 45 C 65 B 85 C 105 C
6 B 26 A 46 A 66 D 86 B 106 B
7 C 27 A 47 A 67 C 87 D 107 A
8 A 28 D 48 C 68 A 88 B 108 C
9 B 29 B 49 A 69 A 89 D 109 B
10 C 30 A 50 A 70 D 90 A 110 B
11 A 31 B 51 A 71 C 91 D 111 C
12 B 32 B 52 C 72 C 92 B 112 C
13 C 33 B 53 A 73 C 93 B 113 A
14 B 34 C 54 B 74 D 94 A 114 C
15 A 35 C 55 A 75 B 95 D 115 D
16 A 36 B 56 B 76 C 96 B 116 A
17 C 37 B 57 C 77 A 97 C 117 D
18 A 38 C 58 A 78 C 98 C 118 A
19 B 39 D 59 D 79 B 99 A 119 C
20 A 40 A 60 B 80 C 100 C 120 B