MCQ Practise Test Pharmacology-I(T3.5.3) set no-02
1 The IV administration of drugs are
a) 100% bio availability
b) Rapidly absorbed
c) Undergoes the first-pass metabolism
d) Rapidly excreted by renal
2 The concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of that drug’s maximal eff|ects is termed as ……………….
a) Efficacy
b) Potency
c) Affinity
d) Bio availability
3 For a drug given orally, the principal site of drug absorption is,
a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Oesophagus
d) Large intestine
4 Bio transformation of the drugs may lead to all of the following except
a) Inactive metabolite from an active drug
b) Active metabolite from an active drug
c) Active metabolite from an inactive drug
d) Inactive metabolite from inactive drug
5 Depot of the drug can be formed by …………………….
a) Subcutaneous and intramuscular route
b) Intravenous route
c) Subcutaneous route
d) Intradermal and subcutaneous route
6 The desired physicochemical properties of drugs are:
a) Ionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
b) Unionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
c) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
d) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid-insoluble
7 The e}cacy of agonist is reduced without affecting its potency is found in ………………….
a) Antagonism.
b) Noncompetitive
c) Competitive
d) Non-competitive and competitive
8 Factors affecting renal clearance of drugs:
A) the presence of renal disease
B) drug secretion rates
C) blood flow
D) all of the above
9 Mixed function oxidases system is referred to as mediating:
A) phase I system
B) phase II system
10 Two most important sites for drug elimination:
A) pulmonary and liver
B) liver and gastrointestinal tract
C) kidney and liver
D) skin and liver
11 Factors affecting renal drug secretion rates:
A) drug transfer rates across tubular membranes
B) degree of drug-plasma protein binding
C) rate of drug delivery to secretory sites
D) all the above
12 Mechanism of action: aspirin-platelet effects:
A) promotes platelet aggregation
B) activates thromboxane synthesis
C) both
D) neither
13 Mediator most likely to promote pain:
A) histamine
B) serotonin
C) bradykinin
D) prostaglandins
14 Isozyme primarily responsible for prostaglandin production by cells involve an inflammation:
A) COX-I
B) COX-II
15 NSAID primarily promoted as an analgesic, not as an antiinflammatory agent:
A) piroxicam
B) ibuprofen
C) naproxen
D) ketorolac
16 Drug associated with the hepatic/renal toxic metabolite: Nacetyl-p-benzoquinone
A) diclofenac
B) aspirin
C) indomethacin
D) acetaminophen
17 Histamine exerts the following actions except:
A. Dilatation of large blood vessels
B. Dilatation of small blood vessels
C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart
D. Itching
18 For a patient of peptic ulcer, the safest nonopioid analgesic is:
A. Celecoxib
B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Paracetamol
D. Ibuprofen
19Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by:
A. H1 antihistaminics alone
B. H2 antagonists alone
C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists
D. None of the above
20 Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist:
A. 4-methyl histamine
B. Impromidine
C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine
D. Chlorpheniramine
21 The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is:
A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation
B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
22 Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition:
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
B. Inflammation
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Variant angina
23 The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems exert functionally opposite influences on the following parameters except:
A. Heart rate
B. Atrial refractory period
C. Pupil diameter
D. Intestinal motility
24 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves:
A. Iris muscles
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Sweat glands
D. Splenic capsul
25 The cardiac muscarinic receptors:
A. Are of the M1 subtype
B. Are of the M2 subtype
C. Are B receptor
D. No one
26 he most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is:
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Methacholine
27Atropine is contraindicated in:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Digitalis toxicity
C. Iridocyclitis
D. Raised intraocular tension
28 The tissues most sensitive to atropine are:
a) The salivary, bronchial and sweat glands
b) The gastric parietal cells
c) Smooth muscle and autonomic effectors
d) The heart
29 Which of the following agents is a short-acting ganglion blocker?
a) Homatropine
b) Trimethaphane
c) Hexamethonium
d) Pancuronium
30 Agents that produce neuromuscular blockade act by inhibiting:
a) Interaction of acetylcholine with cholinergic receptors
b) Release of acetylcholine from prejunctional membrane
c) Packaging of acetylcholine into synaptic vesicles
d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into the nerve ending
31Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to block and recover more rapidly:
a) Hand
b) Leg
c) Neck
d) Diaphragm
32 Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by:
a) Alfa1 receptor
b) Alfa2 receptor
c) Beta1 receptor
d) Beta2 receptor
33 Which of the following effects is related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation?
a) Bronchodilation
b) Vasodilatation
c) Tachycardia
d) Bradycardia
34 Distribution of alfa adrenoreceptor subtypes is associated with all of the following tissues except those of:
a) Heart
b) Blood vessels
c) Prostate
d) Pupillary dilator muscle
35 Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT:
a) Bronchial muscles
b) Heart
c) Pupillary dilator muscle
d) Fat cells
36 In which of the following tissues both alfa and beta1 adrenergic stimulation produces the same effect?
a) Blood vessels
b) Intestine
c) Uterus
d) Bronchial muscles
37 The effects of sympathomimetics on blood pressure are associated with their effects on:
a) The heart
b) The peripheral resistance
c) The venous return
d) All of the above
38 Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist:
a) Tolazoline
b) Labetalol
c) Prazosin
d) Phenoxybenzamine
39 Which of the following drugs is an nonselective beta receptor antagonist?
a) Metoprolol
b) Atenolol
c) Propranolol
d) Acebutolol
40 Propranolol has all of the following cardiovascular effects EXCEPT:
a) It decreases cardiac work and oxygen demand
b) It reduces blood flow to the brain
c) It inhibits the renin secretion
d) It increases the atrioventricular nodal refractory period
41 Propranolol-induced adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Bronchoconstriction
b) “supersensitivity” of beta-adrenergic receptors (rapid withdrawal)
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Sedation, sleep disturbances, depression and sexual dysfunction
42 Propranolol is used in the treatment all of the following diseases EXCEPT:
a) Cardiovascular diseases
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Migraine headache
d) Bronchial asthma
43 Metoprolol and atenolol:
a) Are members of the beta1-selective group
b) Are nonselective beta antagonists
c) Have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
d) Have an anesthetic action
44 Noradrenaline is administered by:
A. Subcutaneous injection
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Slow intravenous infusion
D. All of the above routes
45 Dopaminergic D1 and D2 as well as adrenergic α and β1, but not β2 receptors are activated by:
A. Dopamine
B. Dobutamine
C. Methoxamine
D. Phenylephrine
46 Vasoconstrictors should not be used in:
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Haemorrhagic shock
C. Secondary shock
D. Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia
47 Adrenaline injected with a local anaesthetic:
A. Reduces local toxicity of the local anaesthetic
B. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic
C. Shortens duration of local anaesthesia
D. Makes the injection less painful
48 Which of the following toxicity can occur due to single exposure? a). Acute toxicity
b). Sub-acute toxicity c). Sub-chronic toxicity d). Chronic toxicity
49 The most common target organ of toxicity is the ----
a) heart
b) lung
c) CNS (brain and spinal cord)
d) skin
50 The LD50 is calculated from ------
a) a quantal dose-response curve
b) a hormesis dose –response curve
c) a graded dose-response curve
d) a log-log dose-response curve
51 Which of the following are tools used in risk analysis?
a. toxicology
b. epidemiology
c. clinical trials
d. all of the above.
52 universal antidote is combination of
A 2 parts activated charcoal, 1 part tannic acid, and 1 part magnesium oxide B 1 parts activated charcoal, 2 part tannic acid, and 1 part magnesium oxide C 2 parts activated charcoal, 2 part tannic acid, and 2 part magnesium oxide D None of above
53 What is a synonym/description for the Phase 4 trials? A Post Marketing Surveillance
B Pre Marketing Surveillance C Pre FDA Approval
D Post FDA Approv
54 Among the following, choose the NSAID with the highest COX-2 selectivity:
A. Nimesulide
B. Nabumetone
C. Rofecoxib
D. Celecoxib
55 Paracetamol has the following advantage(s) over NSAIDs:
A. It is the first choice analgesic for majority of osteoarthritis patients
B. It can be given safely to all age groups from infants to elderly
C. It is not contraindicated in pregnant or breast feeding women
D. All of the above
56 Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.
a) True
b) False
57 Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:
a) Glucoronidation
b) Sulfate formation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Methylation
58 Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
59 The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively
reabsorbed:
a) True
b) False
60 What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?
a) Tolerance
b) Tachyphylaxis
c) Accumulation
d) Synergism
ANS KEY-
1) A
2) B
3) B
4) D
5) A
6) A
7) A
8) D
9) A
10) C
11) D
12) D
13) C
14) B
15) D
16) D
17) D
18) C
19) C
20) C
21) B
22) B
23) B
24) B
25) B
26) B
27) D
28) A
29) B
30) A
31) D
32) C
33) C
34) A
35) C
36) B
37) D
38) D
39) C
40) B
41) C
42) D
43) A
44) C
45) A
46) C
47) B
48) A
49) C
50) A
51) D
52) A
53) A
54) C
55) D
56) B
57) C
58) A
59) A
60) D