1. Fermentation is based upon utilisation Metabolic and enzymatic activity of micro Organism
a) True
b) Falls
2. In order Design a maximum order fermenter following requirement
a) Study of cell kinetics
b) Study of cell wall
c) Study of nucleus
d) None of about
3. Cell growth curve consist of
a) Stationary phase
b) Log phase
c) Death phase
d) All
4. in stationary phase growth of cell decrease
a) True
b) False
5. In Death Phase cell concentration increase
a) True
b) False
6. In exponential phase cell concentration increase
a) True
b) False
7. A genome is
a) Set of nucleic acid
b) Set of RNA
c) Set of vector
d) Set of bacteriophage
8. For better fermentation result improvement of microbial strain important
a) True
b) False
9. Example of Chemical mutagenic agent
a) Nitrous acid
b) Potassium hydroxide
c) Sodium hydroxide
d) None of above
10. Example of mutagenic agent
a) Ionisation
b) UV radiation
c) Both A and B
d) None of above
11. Vessel required for fermentation called as
a) Fermenter
b) Fermentation pot
c) Both A B
d) None of above
12. Generally Fermenter made up of
a) Steel
b) Plastic
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
13. Fermenter consist of following probes
a) Oxygen probe
b) Carbon dioxide probe
c) Both A and b
d) None of the above
14. Fermentation is a biochemical process
a) True
b) False
15. Various important fermenter design factor
a) Maintenance
b) Heat transfer
c) Safety
d) All above
16. Function of agitator
a) Mixing
b) Stering
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
17. Mass transfer of product out of microorganism important for higher yield
a) True
b) False
18. Mass transfer of substrate two microorganisms important for higher yield
a) False
b) True
19. Small size of stirred tank fermenter available is
a) 1 to 10 L
b) 100 L
c) 50 L
d) 25 L
20. Culture vessel should be
a) Non toxic
b) Non corrosive
c) Easily cleanable
d) All above
21. Fermenter also known as
a) Chemical reactor
b) Bioreactor
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
22. Tube viscometer use to monitor
a) Rheology
b) Pressure
c) Both a and b
d) None above
23. Typical agitator speed for fermenter is
a) 0 to 1000 rpm
b) 1000 to 5000 rpm
c) 1000 to 2000 rpm
d) None of above
24. Typical pressure for fermenter is
a) 2000 M bar
b) 1000M bar
c) Both A and B
d) None of above
25. Typical stability range for fermenter
a) Greater than 98%
b) Lower than 98%
c) Lower than 100%
d) Equal to 98%
26. Typical air flow for fermenter is
a) 0 to 6litre per m
b) 6 to 10 lit/ m
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
27. Typical dissolve oxygen range for fermenter
a) 0 to 100%
b) 0 to 50%
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
28. Typical pH range for fermenter is
a) 2.12 +- 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
29. Typical temperature for fermenter is 8 degrees centigrade above coolant to 60 degrees centigrade plus or minus 1 degrees centigrade
a) True
b) False
30. Sterilisation of Fermenter achieve by
a) Dry or Moist heat
b) Chemical agent
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
31. Submerge Fermenter means
a) Supported growth system
b) suspended growth system
c) Both a and B
d) None of above
32. In submerged fermenter Organism are dispersed into nutrition liquid
a) True
b) False
33. Stirred tank fermenter is Example of
a) Supported growth system
b) Suspended growth system
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
34. How many type of stirred tank Fermenter
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
35. Paddle wheel fermenter is belonging to which fermenter class
a) Suspended growth system
b) Mechanically stirred tank
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
36. Agitation affected in force convection fermenter by
a) By pump
b) By stirred
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
37. In gas lift Fermenter agitation affected by
a) Gas
b) Stirred
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
38. Fluidized bed fermenter belong to which class of fermenter
a) Supported growth system
b) Suspended growth system
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
39. Tray fermenter belong to which class of fermenter
a) Supported growth system
b) Suspended growth system
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
40. Tissue culture means
a) Cultivation of plant cell
b) Cultivation of mammalian cell
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
41. For tissue culture normally use multi cellular tissue
a) True
b) False
42. Liquid suspension culture are composed of mixture of cell aggregate cell cluster and cell
a) True
b) False
43. Sterilization of media can be carried by autoclaving at
a) 15 psi
b) 25 psi
c) 30 psi
d) 50psi
44. Sterilization of media can be carried by autoclaving at 15 psi for min
a) 20
b) 30
c) 50
d) 60
45. Exponential phase consist of
a) Slow cell division
b) Rapid cell division
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
46. Linear phase of growth curve consist of
a) Rapid growth
b) Slow growth
c) Linear growth
d) None of above
47. Exponential phase last for how much generation
a) 3-4
b) 5-7
c) 7-9
d) 8-9
48. In callus culture initial acidity adjust to.....
a) 5-6
b) 1-2
c) 3-4
d) 6-7
49. In growth period acidity of medium move to alkaline medium
a) True
b) False
50. In callus culture temperature of growth room maintain at
a) 26 degree cel
b) 50 deg. Cel.
c) 20 deg. Cel.
d) 40 deg. Cel.
51. The tissue culture are maintain in dark and light cycles
a) True
b) False
52. Vit b12 was found to be beneficial for callus culture
a) True
b) False
53. Indole -3- butyric acid is a......
a) Auxin
b) Cytokinine
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
54. Benzyl amino purine is a.........
a) Auxin
b) Cytokinine
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
55. A callus & suspension culture can be induced from any part of plant
a) True
b) False
56. Scientist which first visualised the science of tissue culture
a) Haberblandt
b) Robbin
c) White
d) Torry
57. In which year science of tissue culture found a) 1905
b) 1902
c) 1940
d) 1925
58. Basic requirements for tissue culture lab
a) Controlled environment
b) Controlled aseptic area
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
59. Tissue culture media consist of
a) Inorganic elements
b) Organic compounds
c) Complex extract
d) All of above
60. Sterilization of media achieved by autoclaving
a) True
b) False
61. Broadly the fermenter group under how many class
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7
Pharmaceutical Biotechnology MCQ Question
1. How many types of culture in plant tissue culture
a) 8
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3
2. Callus means
a) Mass of cell
b) Mass of tissue
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
3. Typical character of culture totipotency
a) D edifferentiation
b) Re differentiation
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
4. Microspore culture offer a powerful alternative to protoplast culture
a) True
b) False
5. In Microspore culture a true ……. system isutilized
a) Haploid cell
b) Diploid cell
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
6. For successful microspore culture following factor is important
a) Genotype
b) Growth profile
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
7. Microspore may develop directly into embryo within day
a) 15
b) 10
c) 30
d) 8
8. Microspore containing filtrate is centrifuged at……
a) 1000 RPM
b) 2000 RPM
c) 3000 RPM
d) None of above
9. A protoplast means
a) Cell without wall
b) Cell with wall
c) Both a and b
d) None of Above
10. Protoplast cell consists of organelles and nucleus
a) True
b) False
11. Cell wall of plant cell removed by
a) Cellulose
b) Pectinase
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
12. Cellulase enzyme belongs to ….. Enzyme
a) Lytic
b) Ligase
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
13. How much commonly used method for protoplast preparation in plant
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
14. Commonly used method for preparation ofprotoplast
a) Mechanical method
b) Enzymatic method
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
15. Enzyme matic protoplast preperation method used ….. Enzyme
a) Cellulase
b) Ligase
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
16. Which method used to introduce foreign DNA into protoplast?
a) Electro manipulation
b) Electric
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
17. In electroporation method of protoplast exposedto
a) High voltage
b) Low voltage
c) Moderate voltage
d) None of above
18. Recombinant DNA technology introduced in year
a) 1950
b) 1970
c) 1980
d) 1960
19. Basic building block of DNA is
a) RNA
b) Nucleotide
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
20. Example of nucleotide is
a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
21. Restricted endonuclease used to
a) Cut DNA
b) Joint DNA
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
22. DNA ligase used to
a) Join DNA
b) Cut DNA
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
23. Reverse transcriptase used to Conversion of
a) MRNA
b) Conversion of DNA
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
24. PCR used to
a) Rapid amplification of specific DNA
b) Low amplification of specific DNA
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
25. DNA has which ends
a) 3'
b) 6'
c) 5'
d) Both a and c
26. In anchored PCR only one primer may be used
a) True
b) False
27. Inverse PCR a low the amplification of the DNA sequence which are away from primer
a) True
b) False
28. The basic principle and techniques that comprises the production of recombinant protein includes isolation of gene from cell
a) True
b) False
29. Recovery of penicillin by following methods
a) Carbon process
b) Solvent extraction
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
30. Strain development begins with lyophilized spore of production strain
a) True
b) False
31. Penicillin discover in year
a) 1928
b) 1980
c) 1950
d) 1943
32. Penicillin produced by
a) Penicillium notatum
b) Penicillin notatum
c) Penicillin coli
d) None of above
33. Penicillin discovered by scientist
a) Alexander Fleming
b) Robert Fleming
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
34. Waste discharge methods are
a) Septic tank
b) Tower filter
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
35. Strain selection based on
a) Should be genetically stable
b) Fewer nutrients
c) Provide high substrate yield
d) All of above
36. Grid method used for
a) Plant tissue culture
b) Animal tissue culture
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
37. Plasma clot method used for
a) Plant tissue culture
b) Animal tissue culture
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
38. Collection method of explant is
a) Sandwich method
b) Dissociation method
c) DNA method
d) Both a and b
39. An explant culture be an exercise portion of the body of animal
a) True
b) False
40. Each protein is specified by only one genome
a) True
b) False
41. Each protein is produced by synthetic machinery in cell
a) True
b) False
42. DNA cloning procedure has essential step
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) Six
43. Gene libraries can be prepared from fragmented genomic DNA
a) True
b) False
44. Insulin is a hormone
a) Peptide
b) Polyphenolic
c) Ester
d) None of above
45. Insulin was first time used in year
a) 1922
b) 1934
c) 1944
d) None of above
46. Insulin secretion from of pancreas
a) Beta cell
b) Alpha cell
c) Gamma cell
d) None of the above
47. Human growth hormone is secreted from posterior lobe of pituitary gland
a) True
b) False
48. Human growth hormone consists of how many amino acids
a) 191
b) 195
c) 181
d) 200
49. The microinjection was used to introduced DNA into mouse embryo
a) True
b) False
50. Gene manipulation to modify cell of animal permanently is called transgenic
a) True
b) False
51. The culture produced by cell or tissue taken from organism is term as
a) Primary culture
b) Secondary culture
c) Both a and
d) None of above
52. It is possible to determine the moment when the transition to continuous cell line has taken
a) True
b) False
1. Operations generated forecasts often not to do with
a. Inventory requirements
b. Resource needs
c. Time requirements
d. Sales
2. Which of the following is not true for forecasting?
a. Forecasts are rarely perfect
b. The underlying casual system will remain same in the future
c. Forecast for group of items is accurate than individual item
d. Short range forecasts are less accurate than long range forecasts
3. Which of the following is not a forecasting technique?
a. Judgemental
b. Time series
c. Time horizon
d. Associative
4. In which of the following forecasting technique, subjective inputs obtained from various sources are analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
5. In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
6. World Health Organization was established in ? (a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1945
(d) 1948
7. When was the idea for a global health agency proposed at the United Nations conference on international Organization held in California?
(a) 1947
(b) 1946
(c) 1945
(d) 1948
8. WHO has how many member nations?
(a) 190
(b) 194
(c) 185
(d) 188
9. The WHO has its headquarters in ?
(a) Paris
(b) Hague
(c) Geneva
(d) Washington DC
10 can be simply defined as ‘transmission’ of ideas.
(A) Noise
(B) Communication
(C) Encoding
(D) Decoding
11. The word communication was originated from the word ‘communis’
(A) Latin
(B) Greek
(C) French
(D) English
12. Whose model best explains the premise that communication has no beginning
(A) Lasswell
(B) Frank E. X. Dance
(C) David M Berlo
(D) Wendell Johnson
13. ‘Communis’ means …………...
(A) Common
(B) Information
(C) Code
(D) Communities
14. Advertisement is an example for communication
(A) Propaganda
(B) Persuasive
(C) Personal
(D) Permanent
15. The degree of similarity between individuals
(A) Heterophily
(B) Homophily
(C) Synchrophily
(D) Unophily
16. The degree of difference between individuals
(A) Synchrophily
(B) Homophily
(C) Heterophily
(D) Unophily
17. Which of the following is the idea generating component of communication?
(A) Sender
(B) Message
(C) Channel
(D) Receiver
18. The study of the way people approach others or the keep their distance from others
(A)Kinesics (B)Proxemics (C)Chronemics (D)Ocullesics
19 . Communication between the equals (A)Temporal communication (B)Intrapersonal communication (C)Terminal communication
(D) Lateral communication
20. communication with the self
a. Interpersonal communication
b. Intrapersonal communication
c. Tranpersonal communication
d. None of the above
21. idea generating component of communication is called
a. Source
b. receiver
c. channel
d. message
22. What does the Latin Word “Communis” mean?
(A) Commute
(B) Communication
(C) Common
(D) None of these
23. The process of filtering messages from source to receive is called?
(A) Hand out
(B) Degeneration
(C) Gate keeping
(D) Kinesics
24. Olfactory communication refers to?
(A) Communication by Smell
(B) Communication by Sound
(C) Communication by Fingers
(D) Communication by Eyebrows
25. Which of these is the external sounds present in the channels of communication?
a) Noise
b) Semantic problems
c) Cultural barriers
d) Over communication
26. Which of these should not be avoided for effective communication?
a) Noise
b) Planning
c) Semantic problems
d) Wrong assumptions
27. are problems arising from expression.
a) Cultural barriers
b) Semantic problems
c) Wrong assumptions
d) Selecting perception
28. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions.
a) True
b) False
29. In which of these problems, is the actual message lost in the abundance of transmitted information?
a) Selecting perception
b) Over communication
c) Under communication
d) Filtering
30. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise.
a) True
b) False
31. means to impart understanding of the message.
a) Encoding
b) Receiver
c) Decoding
d) Feedback
32. When is the communication process complete?
a) When the sender transmits the message
b) When the message enters the channel
c) When the message leaves the channel
d) When the receiver understands the message.
33. is the first enemy of communication.
a) Noise
b) Clarity
c) Politeness
d) Completeness
34. Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?
a) Sharing of activity
b) Listening
c) Ambiguity
d) Politenes
35. Which of these is not a commandment of effective communication?
a) Clarity in language
b) Listen poorly
c) Home communication skills
d) Adequate medium
36. Which of the following is NOT a form of non-verbal communication?
a. Body language
b. Tone of voice
c. Written communication
d. Facial expressions
e. Telepathy
37. What is communication without words?
a. There is no communication without words
b. Non-verbal communication
c. Telepathy
d. Sign language
e. Gestures
38. What needs to be complete for there to have been effective communication?
a. The persons sentence
b. The documentation
c. Both the sending and receiving of the message
d. The task that was asked of the person
e. An agreement
39. When you are talking directly to a person and you can see them, this is called what?
a. Verbal contact
b. Face to face communication
c. Talking
d. Interaction
e. Body language
40. When speaking on the phone, you need to ensure you do not do what?
a. Break communication law
b. Break telephone contracts
c. Breach confidentiality
d. Hang up on someone
e. Speak any language other than English
41. Is text messaging an acceptable form of communication?
a. It is not formally classed as communication as communication involves talking
b. Yes, in certain circumstances
c. Yes, it should be the preferred choice when making arrangements
d. No, under no circumstances should you text for work reasons
e. Yes, also, by using emoji’s it can demonstrate the feelings you want to get across
42. Besides how to answer the phone, what else might be in the policy about communication?
a. Methods of communication are acceptable to use with a client
b. There are not really policies on communication
c. Why you should communicate
d. What not to say when communicating
e. All of the above
43. How can a person correctly communicate?
a. Speaking
b. Text message
c. Email
d. Phone
e. All of the above
44. Which of the following is NOT an instance to use text messaging or Email?
a. To change an appointment time
b. To swap a shift
c. A reminder for an appointment
d. To quickly give test results
e. To let a client know you are running late
45. Who can give out information on the phone?
a. The care giver
b. The manager
c. The nurse
d. All of the above
e. b and c
46. How many types of communication are there?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 10
47. How can people use verbal communication?
a. Verbal communication is any words used during face to face contact
b. Verbal communication can happen face to face, telephone, skype
c. Verbal communication is the use of words but not sounds
d. Verbal communication is any words either spoken or written but does not include body language
e. Verbal communication is any words or sounds used during face to face contact
48. Waving is what type of communication?
a. Gestures
b. Body language
c. Sign language
d. Body position
e. Tactile signing
49. Facial expressions are a part of what?
a. Gestures
b. Sign language
c. Body language
d. Verbal communication
e. Non-effective communication
50. Sitting in a position where you are below a person, looking up is a sign of what?
a. You think they are more powerful than you
b. You think you should give them more power
c. You are weaker than the other person
d. You are showing respect to their Mana
e. You think you are more powerful than them
51. Which of the following is NOT an accepted form of written communication?
a. Policies
b. Emails
c. Text Messages
d. Notes
e. Anything written is written communication
52. When writing a formal letter, what do you need to begin with?
a. Date
b. Greeting
c. Address
d. Subject header
e. Signature
53. When writing a letter, what do you NOT have to help you get your message across?
a. Spell check
b. Emoji’s
c. Body language
d. Edit function
e. Facial expressions
54. When using electronic communication, which of the following is something you should NOT do?
a. Use jargon
b. Use text language
c. Give private information
d. Give important news
e.All of the above
55. Which of the following is a legal document?
a. Any emails with a client’s name
b. Any emails regardless of content
c. Policy manual
d. Client notes
e. Any written documentation
56. When writing clinical notes, you should only write what?
a. The cares you have done
b. Factual information
c. Your perspective of their overall health for the day
d. What the client has given permission for you to write
e. What needs to happen the following day
57. Notes should be written in what colour?
a. Blue or Black
b. Blue
c. Black
d. Red
e. Any colour is fine
58. Why are policies and procedures created?
a. So the staff are legally bound to behave in a certain way
b. So a health care worker can be disciplined if it is not done the way the manager wants
c. To give the golden standard to aim for with cares
d. To ensure everyone follows the same rules and guidelines
e. To give the general idea of how things should be done
59 . How often are policies reviewed?
a. Every 6 months
b. Every year
c. Every 2 years
d. Every 5 years
e. Every time there is an incident
60.Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?
a) Sharing of activity
b) Listening
c) Ambiguity
d) Politenes
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
1 D 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 E
2 D 12 B 22 C 32 D 42 A 52 B
3 C 13 A 23 C 33 A 43 E 53 C
4 A 14 B 24 A 34 C 44 D 54 E
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 B 45 E 55 D
6 D 16 C 26 B 36 E 46 C 56 B
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 B 47 B 57 A
8 B 18 B 28 A 38 C 48 A 58 D
9 C 19 D 29 B 39 B 49 C 59 C
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 C 50 D 60 C