1. Oral controlled release drugs release the drug only inside the intestine.
a) True
b) False
2. What are the characteristics of continuous release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Release as soon as comes in contact to the saliva
3. What is the characteristic of delayed transit and continuous release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Release as soon as comes in contact to the saliva
4. What is the characteristic of delayed release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Release as soon as comes in contact to the saliva
5. What is the characteristic of dissolution controlled release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Very slow dissolution rate
6. What is the characteristic of matrix dissolution-controlled release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Employ waxes to control the rate of dissolution
7. What is the characteristic of encapsulation or coating dissolution-controlled release systems?
a) Microencapsulation using slowly dissolving materials
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Employ waxes to control the rate of dissolution
8. What are the characteristics of diffusion-controlled release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Diffusion of the dissolved drug
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Employ waxes to control the rate of dissolution
9. What are the characteristics of Matrix diffusion-controlled release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Drug disperse in an insoluble matrix of rigid hydrophobic materials
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Employ waxes to control the rate of dissolution
10. What are the characteristics of reservoir devices-controlled release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Drug disperse in the insoluble matrix of rigid hydrophobic materials
c) Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane
d) Employ waxes to control the rate of dissolution
11. What are the characteristics of ion exchange resin drug complexes?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Drug disperse in an insoluble matrix of rigid hydrophobic materials
c) Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane
d) Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins
12. What is the characteristic of pH-independent formulations?
a) Buffering agents that adjust pH to the desired value
b) Drug disperse in the insoluble matrix of rigid hydrophobic materials
c) Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane
d) Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins
13. What are the characteristics of osmotic pressure-controlled systems?
a) Buffering agents that adjust pH to the desired value
b) Releases the drug at a zero-order kinetics
c) Hollow systems containing drug surrounded by a polymer membrane
d) Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins
14. Osmotic pressure controlled systems work on the principle of osmotic pressure releasing the drug at constant 1st order kinetics.
a) True
b) False
15. What are the characteristics of hydrodynamic pressure controlled systems?
a) Buffering agents that adjust pH to the desired value
b) Drug disperse in an insoluble matrix of rigid hydrophobic materials
c) Generated by swelling hydrophilic hum
d) Formation of complexes between the drug and anion/cation exchange resins
16. What is the characteristics of altered density systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Use of high or low density pellets
17. What are the characteristics of floating or buoyant capsule systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Granule drug with hydro gel
c) Release only at a specific drug
d) Use of high or low density pellets
18. What is the characteristics of mucoadhesive systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Usage of bio adhesive polymer
d) Use of high or low density pellets
19. Enteric coating are used for which systems?
a) Intestinal release systems
b) Colonic release systems
c) Size based systems
d) Mucoadhesive systems
20. Drugs cannot be delivered to the colon.
a) True
b) False
21. What are the characteristics of intestinal release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Usage of polymers that dissolves only in the alkaline pH of colon
d) Use of enteric coating
22. What are the characteristics of colonic release systems?
a) Release the drug along the entire length of GIT
b) Prolonged their residence in the GIT and release
c) Usage of polymers that dissolves only in the alkaline pH of colon
d) Use of enteric coating
23. The duration of action of parental controlled release systems can be extended up to what time?
a) 1 day
b) 1 week
c) 1 month
d) Day, week, month even a year
24. What is the drawback of parental controlled release systems?
a) Injecting is a difficulty
b) The drug cannot be easily removed once administered
c) Can get easily precipitated in the injection site
d) Rapid onset but fast excretion
25. Which one of the following should not be a characteristic of the vehicles or polymers which are used for parenteral formulations?
a) Sterile
b) Consists of pyrogen
c) Nonirritating
d) Biodegradable
26. With aqueous solutions, the drug releases can be controlled. Which of the following is not the right method of controlling?
a) Increasing the viscosity
b) By forming complexes with macromolecules
c) Reducing the solubility of the parent drug
d) Increasing the pH to make it highly basic
27. Release of water-soluble drugs can be retarded by presenting it as suspension.
a) Oil
b) Water
c) Colloidal
d) Freezing
28. Larger particle size leads to dissolution.
a) Slower
b) Faster
c) Moderate
d) Normal
29. Which of the following is a characteristic of microspheres?
a) Free flowing powders
b) Aqueous solutions
c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
d) Administration of emulsions
30. Which of the following is a characteristic of oil solutions?
a) Free flowing powders
b) Aqueous solutions
c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
d) Administration of emulsions
31. Which of the following is a characteristic of aqueous solutions?
a) Free flowing powders
b) Drug release can be increased by increasing viscosity
c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
d) Administration of emulsions
32. Which of the following is a characteristic of nanoparticles?
a) Free flowing powders
b) Aqueous solutions
c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
d) Size range 10-100 nm
33. Which of the following is a characteristic of the parental controlled drug release system by liposomes?
a) Free flowing powders
b) Aqueous solutions
c) Lipid bilayer enclosing the drug
d) Administration of emulsions
34. Which of the following can be incorporated into a liposome?
a) Only drugs and viruses
b) Only Peptides and viruses due to similar characteristics
c) Only viruses
d) Drugs, peptides, viruses, bacteria
35. Which of the following is a characteristic of resealed erythrocytes?
a) Nonimmunogenic
b) Aqueous solutions
c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
d) Size range 10-100 nm
36. Which of the following statement is false for osmotic pumps?
a) The pump has three concentric circle
b) The innermost is the drug reservoir
c) The drug is contained a permeable polyester bag
d) Outer most rigid rate controlling semipermeable membrane
37. Which of the following statement is true for osmotic pumps?
a) The tube is made up of stainless steel
b) The innermost is the drug reservoir in a no collapsible bag
c) The drug is contained a permeable polyester bag
d) The outer most cover is soft and easily permeable
38. Which of the following should not be a property of implants?
a) Environmental stable
b) Biostable
c) Non-toxic
d) Nonremovable
39. Which is the disadvantage for implants?
a) More effective
b) More prolonged action
c) Significantly small dose
d) Need of microsurgery
40. Subcutaneous tissue is an ideal location for implants?
a) True
b) False
41. Which of the following drugs are used in implants?
a) Pantoprazole
b) Mannitol
c) Amlodipine
d) Morphine antagonist
42. Which of the following is a false statement for vapour pressure pump?
a) The device consists of two chambers
b) A chamber contains the drug solution
c) Drug solution chamber is separated by rigid walls
d) Vapour chamber contains vaporizable fluids
43. After implantation of a vapour pressure pump, the body has to get heated by exercising so that the volatile liquid vaporizes.
a) True
b) False
44. Which of the following is a characteristic of battery powered pumps?
a) Free flowing powders
b) The system is programmed to release drugs at a controlled rate
c) Control drug release by partitioning the drug from the oil
d) Administration of emulsions
45. The drug loading in resealed erythrocytes can be done by 1st immersing the cells in a buffered hypertonic solution.
a) True
b) False
46. How are MLV liposomes made?
a) 2-10 bilayers of lipid
b) Series of concentric bilayers of lipid
c) The single bilayer of lipid
d) 100 bilayer of lipid
47. How are OLV liposomes made?
a) 2-10 bilayers of lipid
b) Series of concentric bilayers of lipid
c) A single bilayer of lipid
d) 100 bilayer of lipid
48. What is dosage regimen?
a) The concentration of active agent in the drug formulation
b) The manner in which the drug is given to old people
c) The manner in which a drug is taken
d) The manner in which drug given to child
49. What is the optimal multiple dosage regimen?
a) The concentration of active agent in the drug formulation
b) Dosage which maintains the plasma concentration within the therapeutic window.
c) The manner in which a drug is taken
d) The manner in which drug given to child
50. Which of the following drugs are lipid soluble?
a) Phenytoin
b) Caffeine
c) Digoxin
d) Antibiotics
51. Which of the following drugs get distributed to the same extent in both lean and adipose tissue?
a) Phenytoin
b) Caffeine
c) Digoxin
d) Antibiotics
52. Which of the following drugs can get distributed to the excess body space of obese patient?
a) Phenytoin
b) Caffeine
c) Digoxin
d) Antibiotics
53. The package which has direct contact with the formulation is called as....
a) Pharmaceutical packaging
b) Primary packaging
c) Tertiary packaging
d) Secondary packaging
54. The cardboard is used as a packaging material.
a) Primary packaging
b) Secondary packaging
c) Tertiary packaging
d) d.b and c both
55. Release of a constituent from the plastic material of the container into the formulation is known as .......
a) Permeation
b) Leaching
c) Sorption
d) Blooming
56. Self sealability test is performed to evaluate........
a) Rubber closure
b) Plastic container .
c) Plastic closure
d) Glass container
57. The semisolid dosage forms meant for single application into the eye are called as......
a) Ointments
b) Contact lens
c) Applicaps
d) Lotion
58. From the types of dosage forms listed below, select the type commonly used for ophthalmic preparations.
a) Lotion
b) Elixir
c) Solution
d) Emulsion
59. Sulphur is used as a........
a) Surface coating material of glass
b) vulcanizing (curring) agent for rubber
c) In manufacturing of leaching proof plastic
d) None of the above
60. Which one of the test is not performed for rubbers?
a) Sterility
b) Humidity
c) Self sealability
d) Fragmentation
Answer Key
1. a
2. b
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. d
7. a
8. b
9. b
10. c
11. d
12. a
13. b
14. b
15. c
16. d
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. c
23. d
24. b
25. b
26. d
27. a
28. a
29. a
30. c
31. b
32. d
33. c
34. d
35. a
36. a
37. a
38. d
39. d
40. a
41. b
42. c
43. d
44. d
45. a
46. d
47. a
48. c
49. b
50. a
51. d
52. d
53. c
54. d
55. d
56. a
57. c
58. c
59. b
60. b
1. Which of the following investigations are performed during preformulation investigations of pharmaceuticals?
a. Solubility investigations
b. Pka determination
c. Stability investigations
d. All of the above
2. What is required from an excipient?
a. It has its own pharmacological effect
b. It should not cause allergy
c. It entirely influences the effect of the pharmacon
d. Compatibility with the active agent
3. BCS classification classifies the drugs on the basis of:
a. Solubility
b. Diffusivity
c. Solubility and permiability
d. Permiability
4. Study of physicochemical properties of the drug prior to manufacture is called as:
a. Preformulation
b. Assay
c. Quality control
d. Validation
5. The package which has direct contact with the formulation is called as....
a. Pharmaceutical packaging
b. Primary packaging
c. Tertiary packaging
d. Secondary packaging
6. The cardboard is used as a packaging material.
a. Primary packaging
b. Secondary packaging
c. Tertiary packaging
d. d.b and c both
7 has a high hydrolytic and thermal shock resistance.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. c.Type III
d. Type IV
8. To prevent blooming of type II glass treatment is given.
a. Plastic coating
b. Magnesium
c. Sulphur
d. Alkali
9. The transmission of gases, vapors or liquids from the surrounding environment into the plastic container is known as .....
a. Permeation
b. Leaching
c. Sorption
d. Blooming
10 Plastic can withstand the high temperatures moist heat of sterilization.
a. Polypropylene
b. b.Polyamide
c. Polyvinyl chloride
d. All of the above
11. Release of a constituent from the plastic material of the container into the formulation is known as .......
a. Permeation
b. Leaching
c. Sorption
d. Blooming
12. Self sealability test is performed to evaluate........
a. Rubber closure
b. Plastic container .
c. Plastic closure
d. Glass container
13. Water attack test / hydrolytic resistance test is performed for evaluation of .......
a. Glass
b. Plastic
c. Aluminium
d. Tin
14. Implantation test is performed on the rabbit for evaluation of Containers.
a. Plastic
b. Aluminium
c. Glass
d. Tin
15. Eye lotions are supplied in the Form.
a. concentrated
b. Diluted
c. sterile
d. dry
16. The semisolid dosage forms meant for single application into the eye are called as......
a. Ointments
b. Contact lens
c. Applicaps
d. Lotion
17. From the types of dosage forms listed below, select the type commonly used for ophthalmic preparations.
a. Lotion
b. Elixir
c. Solution
d. Emulsion
18. From the list of characteristics below, select the characteristic required of ophthalmic suspensions.
a. Particle-free
b. Isotonic
c. Sterile
d. Clear
19. . Tonicity adjusters used in ophthalmic solutions include all of the following, except:
a. Benzalkonium chloride
b. Sodium nitrate
c. Dextrose
d. Sodium chloride
20. The ophthalmic products should have viscosity enough to maintain ......
a. contact time
b. Solubility
c. comfort to the eye
d. osmotic pressure
21 is very common gram negative bacteria which are generally found to be present
in ophthalmic products.
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Virus
d. Tachypleusgigas
22. Eye irritation study of ophthalmic products is done by:
a. Sterility test
b. Draiz test
c. Endotoxin study
d. Particle size analysis
23. The test for bacterial endotoxins (BET) is performed by using lysate obtained from.....
a. Tachypleusgigas,
b. Tachypleus tridentatus
c. Limulus polyphemus
d. All of the above
24. High efficiency particulate air filter remove particle up to size.
a. 0.1mm
b. 0.3 micron
c. 5 micron
d. 0.1 micron
25. The parenteral product meant for injection should have same specific gravity as
that of spinal fluid.
a. Intra - spinal
b. Intra osseous
c. Intramuscular
d. Intracardiac
26 test is preliminary test for rabbit test of pyrogens.
a. Sham test
b. LAL test
c. Elisa test
d. Clarity test
27 is performed to determine whether any capillary pores or tiny cracks are present
on the vials or ampoules.
a. Leaker test
b. Clarity test
c. LAL test
d. Crack test
28. Powdered glass test is performed to examine leaching potential of ....
a. Exterior structure of glass
b. Plastic containers
c. Interior structure of glass
d. Intact surface of glass
29. Which one of the following is not the principle problem area exist in plastic containers.
a. Leaching
b. Permeation
c. Hardness
d. Sorption
30. Sulphur is used as a........
a. Surface coating material of glass
b. vulcanizing (curring) agent for rubber
c. In manufacturing of leaching proof plastic
d. None of the above
31. Which one of the test is not performed for rubbers?
a. Sterility
b. Humidity
c. Self sealability
d. Fragmentation
32. The efficiency of HEPA filter is:
a. Removes 97.99% particles of size 0.3 micron
b. Removes 99.97 % particles of size 0.3 micron
c. Removes 97.99% particles of size 0.5 micron
d. Removes 99.99% particles of size 0.3 micron
33. DOP( ) is used in validation of HEPA filter.
a. Dioctylpthalate
b. Dioctylpyruvate
c. Dioctahedralpthaladehyde
d. Dioctane pthalazine
34. According to BCS classification, the drug having low solubility and high permeability are classified in:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
35. Lysis of compound due to presence of water molecule is called as:
a. Solvolysis
b. Hydrolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Racemization
36. Lysis of compound due to presence of solvent other than water is called as:
a. Solvolysis
b. Hydrolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Racemization
37. Compound having Hausner's ratio of 1.7 shows.
a. Poor flow
b. Excellent flow
c. Good flow
d. High flow
38. Which properties are determined by using Carr's Index?
a. Flowability
b. Solubility
c. Stability
d. Pka value
39. Coulter counter is used to determine.
a. Solubility
b. Polymorphism
c. Surface characetristics
d. Particle size
40. What are the factors implicated in the performance and design of oral controlled release system
a) physiology of larger site
b) drug physicochemical properties
c) biopharmaceutical properties
d) all of the above
41. Which of the following method of microencapsulation
a) air suspension technique
b) pan coating method
c) solvent evaporation technique
d) all of the above
42. The biological factors influencing the design and act of controlled release product is
........
a) partition coeficient
b) absorption
c) molecular size
d) solubility
43 is the process in which small droplets or particles of liquids or solid
material are surrounded by continuous film of polymeric material
a) polymerization
b) microencapsulation
c) macromolecular conjugation
d) none of the above
44. Equation of osmotic pressure
a) f(z) = 1-p/s
b) f(z) = 1-s/p
c) f(z) = S-1/P
d) f(z)= P-1/S
45. Core material include
a) drug
b) additives
c) stabilizers
d) all of the above
46. Rate determining step for controlled released delivery system is...........
a) absorption
b) drug release from dosage form
c) both a) and b)
d) penetration
47. Delivered the drug through the skin at the controlled rate to the systemic circulation called as..............
a) ocular drug delivery system
b) nasopulmonary drug delivery system
c) transdermal drug delivery system
d) brain targeted drug delivery system
48 is the process whereby synthetic and natural macromolecules adheres to
mucosal surface in the body
a) mucoadhesion
b) bioadhesion
c) both a) and b)
d) none of the above
49. which of the following type of implant
a) root form implant
b) ramus - frame implant
c) blade - form implant
d) all of the above
50. Limitation of implantable drug delivery system
a) limited to potent
b) possibility og adveres reaction
c) biocompatibility issues
d) all of the above
51. Zero order release kinetics is attained in
a) sustain release
b) controlled release
c) enteric coating
d) immediate release
52. Released kinetics from dissolution controlled system is goverened by
a) fick' law of diffusion
b) zero order kinetice
c) noyes whitney equation
d) first order kinetics
53. What is advantage of bilayer tablet
a) have increased efficiency
b) two active pharmaceutical ingredients put in one tablet
c) to increased compliance
d) all of the above
54. Which of the following properties of coating material in microencapsulation
a) hygroscopi
b) film forming
c) inert toward active ingredient
d) stabilization of core material
55. Inversion sucrose in syrup due to heat is known as …
a. Isomerization
b. Epimerization
c. Tautomeriation
d. caramelization
56. HEPA filters are widely used in …
a. Autoclaves
b. Laminar air flow hoods
c. Gas sterilizers
d. Oxygen masks
57. Water insoluble coating materials used for microencapsulation include …
a. Ethyl cellulose
b. Polyethylene
c. Polyamide
d. All of the above
58. The official dissolution test apparatus contains cylindrical vessel and the lower edge of the blade is positioned from inside bottom of the vessel at
a. 18 to 22mm
b. 23 to 27mm
c. 20 to 24mm
d. 25 to 29mm
59. Which one of the following should not be a characteristic of the vehicles or polymers which are used for parenteral formulations?
a. Sterile
b. Consists of pyrogen
c. Nonirritating
d. Biodegradable
60. What is the drawback of parental controlled release systems?
a. Injecting is difficult
b. The drug cannot be easily removed once administered
c. Can get easily precipitated in the injection site
d. Rapid onset but fast excretion
Answer Keys
1. d
2. d
3. c
4. a
5. a
6. d
7. a
8. c
9. a
10. d
11. d
12. a
13. a
14. a
15. a
16. c
17. c
18. c
19. a
20. a
21. a
22. b
23. d
24. b
25. a
26. a
27. a
28. c
29. c
30. b
31. b
32. b
33. a
34. b
35. b
36. a
37. a
38. b
39. d
40. d
41. d
42. b
43. b
44. b
45. d
46. b
47. c
48. c
49. d
50. d
51. b
52. c
53. d
54. a
55. a
56. c
57. a
58. b
59. b
60. b