1. When a sender manipulates information so that it will be seen more favourably by the receiver in communication, it is called
(A) Selective Perception
(B) Linguistic Trap
(C) Filtering
(D) Emotional Appeal
2. Which of the following is a process of communication?
(A) Downward
(B) Upward
(C) Lateral
(D) All the above
3. Which of the following is not a path in grapevine chain?
(A) Non-profitability
(B) Single strand
(C) Gossip
(D) Cluster Chair
4. Which communication component is not a paid form of communication?
(A) Advertising
(B) Sales promotion
(C) Personal selling
(D) Publicity
5. The term “Grapevine Communication” is related to
(A) Formal Communication
(B) Informal Communication
(C) Written Communication
(D) Vertical Communication
6. The study of gestures and body postures for their impact on communication is known as:
(A) Kinesics
(B) Proximics
(C) Semantics
(D) Informal channels
7. Diffusion of routine information takes place through
(A) Downward Communication
(B) Upward Communication
(C) Horizontal Communication
(D) External Communication
8. Which of the following is /are called as ‘fourth estate’?
(A) Print media
(B) Electronic media
(C) Visual media
(D) All the above
9. Who coined the term “fourth estate”?
(A) Charles Marrian
(B) James Bryce
(C) Edmund Burke
(D) Thomas Jefferson
10. Who among the following considered communication as a sharing process?
(A) Dhama and Bhatnagar
(B) Wilbur Schramm
(C) Joseph A Devito
(D) Ban and Hawkins
11. Information that is sent back to the source is known as …...
(A) Context
(B) Feedback
(C) Encoding
(D) Decoding
12. Howling and hooting by the audience during a public speech is an example of …....
(A) Positive feedback
(B) Neutral feedback
(C) Complementary feedback
(D) Negative feedback
13. Communicating within oneself is known as ….......
(A) Group Communication
(B) Transpersonal Communication
(C) Intrapersonal communication
(D) Interpersonal communication
14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of face to face communication?
(A) Direct
(B) Personal
(C) Mediated
(D) Intimate
15. Who was a champion of massline communication?
(A) Mao Zedong
(B) B R Ambedkar
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Marshall Tito
16. Retranslating a message to extract meaning is known as…..
(A) Decoding (B) Messaging (C) Encoding (D) Noise
17. The act of producing a message is known as….
(A) Decoding
(B) Messaging
C) Noise
(D) Encoding
18. Which of the following is not an advantage of written communication over oral communication?
(A) It is a permanent record
(B) Provides tangible legal evidence
(C) Accessible to the illiterate
(D) More accurate than oral communication
19. Anything that interferes with a message in communication is known as…......
(A) Context
(B) Noise
(C) Decoding
(D) Feedback
20. Who among the following is a gatekeeper?
(A) Reader
(B) Viewer
(C) Listener
(D) Editor
21. How many of the sensory channels can be applied while viewing a television programme?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of mass communication?
(A) Instant feedback
(B) Impersonal
(C) Universal access
(D) Presence of gatekeeper
23. Undesirable consequences of mass communication is known as …......
(A) Functions of mass communication
(B) Dysfunctions of mass communication
(C) Ethicizing functions of mass communication
(D) Socialising functions of mass communication
24. Which among the following is component of Communication process?
(A) Message
(B) Channel
(C) Decoding
(D) Analysis
25. The Consequence of Communication is called?
(A) Effect
(B) Message
(C) Source
(D) Context
26. When did the World Trade Organisation come into effect?
(A) March 6, 1996
(B) April 8, 1994
(C) February 5, 1994
(D) January 1, 1995
27. Total members in the WTO at present are? (a). 207
(b). 195
(c). 160
(d). 164
28. Which among these is the headquarter of the WTO
(A) Austria
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) Washington DC
29. Which of these institutions is not a part of the World Bank community?
(a) IFC
(b) IDA
(c) WTO
(d) IBRD
30. Along with the World Bank and ———————– WTO is the third economic pillar of world-wide dimensions.
(A) International Economic Association (IEA)
(B) International Monetary Funds (IMF)
(C) International Development Bank (IDB)
(D) International Funding Organisation (IFO)
31. Which of the following statements is false
(a) India’s vote share in the International Monetary Fund is 10%
(b) Both the IMF & IBRD have headquarters in Washington
(c) IBRD is also known as World Bank
(d) Both IMF & World Bank are called Bretton Woods twins
32. Among the following options which is not the objective of the WTO?
(A) To protect environment
(B) To improve the Balance of Payment situation of the member countries
(C) To improve the standard of living of peoples of the member countries
(D) To enlarge production and trade of goods
33. Who is the current Director-General of WTO?
(a) Pascal Lamy
(b) Mahmoud Riad
(c) Chedli Klibi
(d) Roberto Azevêdo
34. TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered by:
(A) World Bank (WB)
(B) United Nations Organization (UNO)
(C) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
35. Who is most recently appointed the Ambassador and Permanent Representative of India to WTO? (a). JS Deepak
(b). TS Deepak
(c). Anwar Hussain Shaik (d). Brajendra Navnit
36. Which of the following statements is not true?
a) The World Trade Organization (WTO) requires member nations to give national treatment to international goods and services.
b) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was replaced by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995.
c) The most favoured nation principle under GATT provided that preferential trading agreements reached with one country should be extended to other countries.
d) The WTO has been able to cover in its agreements the direct taxation policies of member nations.
37. TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered by:
a) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
b) United Nations Organization (UNO)
c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
d) World Bank (WB)
38. Which of the following categories of agricultural subsidies are allowed under WTO ?
a) Green box
b) Blue box
c) Red box
d) Amber box
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Headquarter of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is in Doha. 2. The World Intellectual Property Organization is a specialized agency of the WTO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements about special safeguards mechanism (SSM) under the WTO:
1. SSM allows member countries of the WTO to designate agricultural products that are important from the point of view of rural development, livelihood security, and food security needs. 2. The agricultural products designated under SSM are eligible for flexible tariff structure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
41. At present how many members are in the WTO? (a). 160
(b). 164
(c). 207
(d). 195
42. Where is the headquarter of the WTO? (a). New York
(b). Washington DC (c). Geneva
(d). Austria
43. Which of the following statement is not true about the WTO? (a). WTO is a permanent organisation
(b). Uruguay round gave the birth to the WTO
(c).Ministerial Conference is the highest policy making body of the WTO (d).WTO was officially constituted on 1 January 1991.
44. Which of the following country is not the member of the WTO? (a).Iran
(b). Azerbaijan (c). Belarus
(d). None of these
45. Which of the following institution is associated with Dunkel Proposals?
(A) World Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Trade Organization
(D) United Nations Organization
46. When did the World Trade Organisation come into effect?
(a) March 6, 1996
(b) April 8, 1994
(c) February 5, 1994
(d) January 1, 1995
47. Along with the World Bank and ———————– WTO is the third economic pillar of world-wide dimensions.
(a) International Economic Association (IEA)
(b) International Monetary Funds (IMF)
(c) International Development Bank (IDB)
(d) International Funding Organisation (IFO)
48. Among the following options which is not the objective of the WTO?
(a) To protect environment
(b) To improve the Balance of Payment situation of the member countries
(c) To improve the standard of living of peoples of the member countries
(d) To enlarge production and trade of goods
49. TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered by:
(a) World Bank (WB)
(b) United Nations Organization (UNO)
(c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
50. Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA) (A)Total Quality Management
(B)International Standard Organization (C)Total Productive Maintenance (D)Total Quality Control
51. Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on (A)Employee
(B)Customer (c)Both (a) and (b)
(D)None of the above
52. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective? (A)Top level management
(B)Middle level management (C)Frontline management (D)All of the above
53. According to Deming, Quality problems are (A)Due to management
(B)Due to method (C)Due to machine (D)Due to material
54. While setting Quality objective, to be considered. (A)Material quality
(B)Customer need (C)Market demand (D)All of the above
56. -Organisation establishes relationship between
(A) People, work and resources
(B) Customer, work and resources
(C) People, work and management
(D) Customer, work and management
57. Organisation is a process of
(A) Identifying and grouping of work to be performed
(B) Defining and delegating the responsibility and authority
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of the above
58. The following is not a principle of organisation
(A) Principle of exception
(B) Principle of balance
(C) Principle of complexity
(D) Principle of co-ordination
59. As per the principle of balance, there should be balance between
(A) The activities
(B) Authority and responsibility
(C) Standardisation of procedures and flexibility
(D) All of the above
60. ‘No one on the organisation should have more than one boss’ is a statement of
(A) Principle of specialisation
(B) Principle of authority
(C) Principle of unity of command
(D) Principle of span of control
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
1 C 11 B 21 B 31 A 41 B 51 C
2 D 12 D 22 A 32 B 42 C 52 A
3 A 13 C 23 B 33 D 43 D 53 A
4 D 14 C 24 D 34 C 44 D 54 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C
6 A 16 A 26 D 36 D 46 D 56 A
7 A 17 D 27 D 37 C 47 B 57 C
8 D 18 C 28 B 38 A 48 B 58 C
9 C 19 B 29 C 39 D 49 C 59 D
10 B 20 D 30 B 40 C 50 A 60 C