1. “7-Chloro-3-hydroxy-5-phenyl-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one” is the IUPAC nomenclature of which drug?
a) Trihexyphenidyl
b) Propantheline
c) Oxybutynin
d) Oxazepam
2. Match the following with correct classifications of the drugs.
i. Propantheline A. Benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic
ii. Oxazepam B. Barbiturate
iii. Clozapine C. Muscarinic antagonist
iv. Thiamylal D. Benzpines
a) i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B
b) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
c) i-A, ii-B, iii-D, iv-C
d) i-C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D
3. Mechanism of action of oxazepam is based on?
a) Blocking the Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
b) Blocking the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
c) Increasing the inhibitory effects of GABA
d) Both a) and c)
4. Correct sequence for True and False for the given statements related with the SAR of drug trihexyphenidyl
• Ring A should include an aromatic or heteroaromatic ring for binding with 5-phenyl-1,4- benzodiazepin-2-one derivatives.
• An electronegative group at 7-position of the ring A decreases the functional anxiolytic activity.
• Substitutions at 6, 8 or 9 position with electronegative group on ring A will decrease the functional anxiolytic activity.
• When Heterocycles used as ring A, drug shows best pharmacological activity.
a) TFTF
b) FTFT
c) TTTT d)FFTF
5. Steps involved in the synthesis of Oxazepam from 6-chloro-2-xhloromethyl-4- phenylquinazolin-3-oxide in the correct sequence is?
I. Polonovski reaction
II. Treatment with sodium hydroxide
III. Hydrolysis
a) I – II – III
b) I – III
c) II
d) II – I – III
6. The drug Oxazepam is mainly used for?
a) Treatment of anxiety
b) Treatment of Acute alcohol withdrawl
c) Both a) and b)
d) Constipation
7. Which of the following drugs is a volatile substance that is administered by inhalation?
(a) Thiopental
(b) Halothane
(c) Alprazolam
(d) Buspirone
8. The brief duration of action of an ultra-short acting barbiturate is due to a
(a) Slow rate of metabolism in the liver
(b) Low lipid solubility, resulting in a minimal concentration in the brain
(c) High degree of binding to plasma proteins
(d) Slow rate of excretion by the kidneys
9. Which of the following mechanisms of action most likely contributes to the treatment of parkinsonism?
(a) The direct-acting dopaminergic agonist amantadine mimics the activity of striatal dopamine
(b) The antimuscarinic activity of dophen-hydramine contributes to the restoration of striatal dopaminergic-cholinergic neuro-transmitter balance
(c) Striatal H1 – receptors are blocked by the antihistaminic trihexyphenidyl
(d) The ergoline bromocriptine stimulates the release of striatal dopamine from intact terminals.
10. All of the following adverse effects areassociated with the use of levodopa except
(a) Orthostatic hypotension
(b) Delusions, confusion, and depression
(c) Dyskinesia and dystonia
(d) Livedo reticularis
11. The activity of which of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl – N –alkylpiperidine moiety?
(a) Phenobarbital
(b) Chlorpromazine
(c) Diazepam
(d) Meperidine
12. Which of the following agents would not be an alternative to Phenobarbital in the treatment of partial seizures?
(a) Trimethadione
(b) Gabapentin
(c) Felbamate
(d) Lamotrigine
13. A 32-year-old forklift operator with a past history of cardiac arrhythmias is suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the following choices is the best recommendation for this patient?
(a) Diphenhydramine
(b) Meclizine
(c) Astemizole
(d) Fexofenadine
14. Which of the following diuretics is mostsimilar in chemical structure to theantihypertensive agent diazoxide?
(a) Furosemide
(b) Spironolactone
(c) Acetazolamide
(d) Chlorothiazide
15. Following is an example of ideal anesthetic
(a) Ether
(b) Halothane
(c) Thiopental
(d) None of the above
16. An action common to most generalanesthetic
(a) Increase in the cellular threshold of firing
(b) Potentiation of spontaneous and evoked activity of neurons
(c) Inhibition of effects of glutamate
(d) None of the abvoe
17. Following is inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptors
(a) Flumazenil (b)β-Carbolines
(c) Chlordiazepoxide
(d) Glutethimide
18. Which anticonvulsant drug requires therapeutic monitoring of Phenobarbital serum levels as well as it’s own serum levels?
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Primidone
(c) Clonazepam
(d) Ethotoin
19. Zolpidem belongs to following class of drugs
(a) Benzodiazepines
(b) Carbamates
(c) Imidazopyridines
(d) None of the above
20. What are the most common adverse effects of anticonvulsive drugs?
(a) headache and dizziness
(b) Gastrointestinal symptoms
(c) Alternation of cognition and mentation
(d) All of the above
21. What are the important elements in considering treatment strategies for Parkinson’s patients?
(a) Age
(b) Sex
(c) Etiology of the disease
(d) All of the above
22. Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all of the following types of seizures except
(a) Generalized tonic-clonic
(b) Simple partial
(c) Complex partial
(d) Absence
23. Which of the following anticonvulsantsis contraindicated in patients with a history of hypersensitivity to tricyclic antidepressants?
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Ethosuximide
(c) Acetazolamide
(d) Carbamazepine
24. Which of the following agents should notbe used concurrently with levodopa?
(a) Diphenhydramine
(b) Benztropine
(c) Amantadine
(d) Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors
25. Amantadine has which of the following advantages over levodopa?
(a) More rapid relief of symptoms
(b) Higher success rate
(c) Better long-term effects
(d) None of the above
26. A patient that has been treated with haloperidol for 3 weeks presents with muscle stiffness, tremor, and shuffling gait. This is most likely which type of extrapyramidal side effect?
(a) Akathisia
(b) Tardive dyskinesia
(c) Pseudoparkinsonism
(d) Acute dystonia
27. The atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical agents in various ways that define them as atypical. Which of the following is not a defining property of the atypical antipsychotics?
(a) Sustained hyperprolactinemia
(b) Improved efficacy in treating the negativesymptoms
(c) Lower risk for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
(d) Greater serotonin receptor blockade thandopamine blockade
28. Which of the following atypical antipsychotics would be the leasts dating?
(a) Quetiapine
(b) Risperidone
(c) Olanzapine
(d) Clozapine
29. Which of the following statements about depression is true?
(a) The incidence of depression is greater in menthan in women
(b) Approximately 5% of institutionalized elders develop depression
(c) Depression has no genetic link
(d) Depression is diagnosed using the DSM-IV criteria
30. A patient with major depression should receive antidepressant therapy for atleast
(a) 2 weeks
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 2 months
(d) 6 months
31. Which of the following patients is mot likely to require maintenance anti depressant therapy?
(a) A 22-year–old woman depressed about the loss of a parent
(b) A 33-year-old man presenting with his second episode of depression
(c) A67-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression
(d) A34-year-old woman experiencing postpartum depression
32. Which of the following medications would most likely exacerbate a pre existing seizure disorder?
(a) Venlafaxine
(b) Trazodone
(c) Bupropion
(d) Paroxetine
33. A patient receiving astemizole for seasonal allergies is diagnosed with major depression. Which of the following antidepressants would most likely interact with the current regiment?
(a) Nefazodone
(b) Amitriptyline
(c) Sertraline
(d) Venlafaxine
34. A prominent toxic effect of local anaesthetics is
(a) CNS stimulation
(b) CNS depression
(c) Tachycardia
(d) Local ischemia
35. Which of the following could be used as an antidote for curare poisoning?
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Atropine
(c) Homatropine
(d) Hexamethonium
36. Cigarette smoking increases the side effects of
(a) Narcotic analgesics
(b) Analeptics
(c) Antidepressants
(d) Oral contraceptives
37. Fluoxetine is a transport blocker
(a) Serotonin
(b) Norepinephrine
(c) Dopamine
(d) GABA
38. Vivactil (protriptyline) is used mainly as a (an)
(a) Analgesic
(b) Muscle relaxant
(c) Cardiotonic
(d) Antidepressant
39. Local anaesthetics block nerve conduction by
(a) Blocking all cation channels in the neuronal membrane
(b) Hyperpolarizing the neuronal membrane
(c) Interfering with depolarization of the neuronal membrane
(d) Both (b) and (c)
40. Sensitivity of a nerve fibre to blockade by lidocaine depends on
(a) Whether the fibre is sensory or motor
(b) Whether the fibre is myelinated ornon myelinated
(c) Internodal distances in the fibre
(d) Both (b) and (c)
41. Which sensation is blocked first by low concentrations of a local anaesthetic ?
(a) Temperature
(b) Pain
(c) Touch
(d) Deep pressure
42. Following are the MAO-inhibitors, except
(a) Tranylcypromine
(b) Nomifensine
(c) Moclobemide
(d) Isocarboxid
43. The local anaethetic with the longest duration of action is
(a) Procaine
(b) Chloroproacine
(c) Lidocaine
(d) Dibucaine
44. Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic ?
(a) Procaine
(b) Lidocaine
(c) Tetracaine
(d) Benoxinate
45. The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is
(a) Lidocaine
(b) Procaine
(c) Bupivacine
(d) Chloroprocaine
46. Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia ?
(a) Appearance of tears in eyes
(b) Resistane to passive inflation of lungs
(c) Fall in blood pressure
(d) Patient makes swallowing movements
47. Which inhalational general anaesthetic is metabolized in the body to a significant extent
(a) Sevoflurane
(b) Isoflurane
(c) Ether
(d) Halothane
48. Binding of Diazepam with acetylcholine muscarinic receptors results in?
a) agonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
b) Antagonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
c) Do not produce any significant effect
d) Do not bind with muscarinic receptor
49. Therapeutic use of drug Diazepam is/are?
a) Treatment of Acute alcohol withdrawal
b) Treatment of seizures
c) Treatment of anxiety
d) All of the above
50. Which amongst the following are the correct statements with respect to the SAR of drug Diazepam?
I. Ring A should include an aromatic or heteroaromatic ring for binding with 5-phenyl-1,4- benzodiazepin-2-one derivatives.
II. An electronegative group at 7-position of the ring A increases the functional anxiolytic activity.
III. Substitutions at 6, 8 or 9 position with electronegative group on ring A will decrease the functional anxiolytic activity.
IV. When Heterocycles used as ring A, drug shows poor pharmacological activity.
a) I, IV
b) I, II, IV
c) I, II, III, IV
d) II, III, IV
51. Type of ring structures present in the structure of diazepam?
a) Quiniclidine
b) Quinoline
c) Diazepine
d) All of the above
52. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug solifenacin?
I. Molecular weight is 284.74 gm/mol
II. Colorless to yellow crystalline compound
III. Melting point is between 132°C
IV. Diazepine ring is present
a) TFTF
b) TTTT
c) FFFF d)FFFT
53. Correct statements for the IUPAC nomenclatures of the are?
I. Solifenacin: (3R)-1-Azabicyclo[2 2 2]oct-3-yl (1S)-1-phenyl-3,4-dihydroisoquinoline-2(1H)- carboxylate
II. Zaleplon: N-(3-(3-cyanopyrazolo[1,5-a] pyrimidin-7-yl)phenyl)-N-ethylacetamide
III. Alprazolam: 7-Chloro-1,3-dihydro-1-methyl-5-phenyl-3H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one
IV. Diazepam: 8-Chloro-1-methyl-6-phenyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a] [1,4]benzodiazepine
a) II, IV
b) I, II
c) I, III, IV
d) I, II, III, IV
54. Match the following drugs with their correct classifications-
i. Solifenacin A. Barbiturate sedative-hypnotic
ii. Thiobarbital B. Benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic
iii. Diazepam C. Acetylcholine antagonist
iv. Zaleplon D. Nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic
a) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
b) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
c) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B
d) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
55. Choose the correct statements related to the physicochemical properties of drug secobarbital-
I. Molecular weight is 238.28 gm/mol
II. White amorphous crystalline powder
III. It is very soluble in water
IV. Melting point is 325K
a) I, II
b) I, II, III
c) III, IV
d) I, III, IV
56. Match the following of the drugs with their correct Trade names.
i. Secobarbital A. Mustine
ii. Mechlorethamine B. Ipamide
iii. Cyclophosphamide C. Saconal
iv. Ifosfamide D. Cycloxan
a) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A
b) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
c) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
d) i-A, ii-D, iii-B, iv-C
57. Effect produced due to binding of secobarbital with GABAA receptor??
a) Increase in GABA affinity for GABA receptor
b) Decrease in GABA affinity for GABA receptor
c) Blocking of GABA receptor for GABA
d) None of the above
58. Esterification of either of the 1,3-diazine nitrogens of secobarbital results in?
a) Decrease in hypnotic activity
b) Increase in hypnotic activity
c) Bioavailability increases
d) Bioavailability decreases
59. Type/s of ring present in the structure of secobarbital?
I. Pyrimidine
II. Indole
III. Benzene
a) II, III
b) I, II
c) I
d) I, II, III
60. Side effect of drug Secobarbital?
a) Insomnia
b) Dizziness
c) Loss of coordination
d) All of the above
61. Match the following with correct SAR of the drug Flurazepam-
i. An electronegative group at 7-position of the ring A. Increases the functional
A
ii. Substitutions at 6, 8 or 9 position with electronegative group on ring A
anxiolytic activity
B. Decreases the functional anxiolytic activity
. C. Decrease the functional
anxiolytic activity
D. Increase the functional anxiolytic activity
a) i-A, ii-D
b) i-A, ii-C
c) i-B, ii-C
d) i-B, ii-D
62. Correct sequence for the True/False for correct IUPAC names of the drug can be?
• Benztropin: (3-endo)-3-(Diphenylmethoxy)-8-methyl-8-azabicyclo[3.2.1]octane
• Fesoterodine: [2-[(1R)-3-(Di(propan-2-yl)amino)-1-phenylpropyl]-4- (hydroxymethyl)phenyl] 2-methylpropanoate
• Flurazepam: 8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-imidazo[1,5- a][1,4]benzodiazepine
• Midazolam: 7-Chloro-1-[2-(diethylamino)ethyl]-5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4- benzodiazepin-2-one
a) TFTF
b) TTFF
c) FFTT
d) TTFT
63. Number of chiral carbons present in the structure of Flurazepam?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
64. Flurazepam drug shows its action through??
a) Agonizing the acetylcholine receptors
b) Antagonizing the muscarinic receptors
c) Binding with GABAA receptors
d) ß-inhibition
65. Which amongst the following is a therapeutic use of drug flurazepam?
a) Treatment of Insomia
b) Treatment of Alzhiemer’s disease
c) Treatment of Overactive bladder
d) Treatment of Asthma
66. Which of the following drug and their classification are correct?
I. Benztropin: acetylcholine antagonist
II. Fesoterodine: Nitrogen mustard
III. Flurazepam: benzodiazepine sedative hypnotic
IV. Midazolam: Acetylcholine Nicotinic receptor antagonist
a) I, III
b) I, III, IV
c) II, IV
d) I, II, III, IV
67. Type of ring present in the structure of flurazepam is?
a) Diazepine ring
b) Pyrimidine
c) Pyrolopyrimidine
d) Not present
68. 2-bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1 trifluroethane is
(a) Halothane
(b) Enflurane
(c) Isoflurane
(d) Desflurane
69. Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as
(a) Hypnotic
(b) Muscle relaxant
(c) Anxiolytic
(d) Antiepileptic
70. Which of the following is a recently developed antiepileptic drug used mainly as add-on therapy of refractory partial seizures ?
(a) Viloxazine
(b) Lamotrigine
(c) Bupropion
(d) Clozapine
71. Gabapentin acts
(a) As GABAA agonist
(b) As precursor of GABA
(c) By enhancing GABA release
(d) By GABA independent mechanism
72. Which of the following is a GABA –transaminase inhibitor ?
(a) Gabapentin
(b) Vigabatrin
(c) Lamotrigine
(d) Clobazam
73. Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism
(a) Inhibits development of involuntary movements
(b) Minimises ‘on–off’ effect
(c) Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities
(d) Accentuates nausea and vomiting
74. Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa is not minimized by combining it with carbidopa
(a) Involuntary movements
(b) Nausea and vomiting
(c) Cardiac arrhythmia
(d) ‘On–off ‘ effect
75. Though bromocriptine acts directly ondopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because
(a) It has low efficacy
(b) It produces ‘first dose hypotension’
(c) Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects
(d) Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop
76. Nitrous oxide is
(a) Non-flammable
(b) Non-irritant
(c) Potent analgesis
(d) All of the above
77. Which of the following selective MAO–B inhibitor ?
(a) Selegiline
(b) Chlorgiline
(c) Moclobemide
(d) Tranylcypromine
78. Local anaesthetics are drugs that produce
(a) Irreversible loss of sensitivity to pain in the restricted area to which they are applied
(b) Reversible loss of sensitivity to pain in the restricted area to which they are applied.
(c) No loss of sensitivity to pain in the area to which they are applied
(d) None of the above
79. Local anaesthetic molecule consists of
(a) Lipophilic group linked by an ester or amide chain
(b) Lipophilic group linked by an ester or amide chain to an amine substitute
(c) Lipophilic group linked to an amine substitute
(d) None of the above
80. Ketamine, a general anaesthetic agentcan be administered by
(a) Intravenous route
(b) Intramuscular route
(c) Intravenous or Intramuscular route
(d) None of the above
81. In the following benzodiazepines used as intravenous general anaesthetic which one has a more rapid onset and shorter half life
(a) Diazepam
(b) Lorazepam
(c) Midazolam
(d) All of the above
82. Which of the following is a intravenous anaesthetic
(a) Thiopental
(b) Ethomidate
(c) Propofol
(d) Ketamine
83. CNS stimulant agents belong to
(a) Respiratory stimulants
(b) Psychomotor stimulants
(c) Psychomimetic agents
(d) All of the above
84. Which of the following general anaesthetics has poor muscle relaxant action ?
(a) Ether
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Halothane
(d) Isoflurane
85. Which of the following general anaesthetics has the most marked uterine relax-ant action ?
(a) Propofol
(b) Halothane
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Ether
86. The distinguishing feature of enflurane compared to halothane is its
(a) Pleasant and nonirritating nature
(b) Propensity to precipitate seizures
(c) Propensity to cause hypotension
(d) Bronchodilator action
87. The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are
(a) Thiopentone sodium
(b) Fentanyl + droperidol
(c) Ketamine
(d) All of the above
88. The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterized by
(a) Good muscle relaxation
(b) Poor analgesia
(c) Sensitization of heart to adrenaline
(d) No postoperative residual CNS depression
89. Dissociative anaesthesia is produced by
(a) Ketamine
(b) Fentanyl + droperidol
(c) Propofol
(d) Both (a) and (b)
90. Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it
(a) Antagonises the actions of methanol
(b) Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level
(c) Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite
(d) Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methanol
91. The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they
(a) Do not affect the GABA–benzodiazepine receptor–chloride channel complex
(b) Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiaze-pine receptor
(c) Increase the frequency of chloride channelopening without affecting its life time
(d) Have both GABA–facilitatory as well asGABA–mimetic actions
92. Which one of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone
(a) Billary excretion
(b) Renal excretion
(c) Hepatic metabolism
(d) Redistribution
93. Currently barbiturates are primarily used as
(a) Hypnotic
(b) Sedative
(c) Antiepileptic
(d) Preanaesthetic medicant
94. Binding of alprazolam with acetylcholine muscarinic receptors results in?
a) Agonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
b) Antagonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
c) Do not produce any significant effect
d) Do not bind with muscarinic receptor
95. Therapeutic use of drug Alprazolam is/are?
a) Treatment of Acute alcohol withdrawal
b) Treatment of seizures
c) Treatment of anxiety
d) All of the above
96. Which amongst the following are the correct statements with respect to the SAR of drug Alprazolam?
I. Ring A should include an aromatic or heteroaromatic ring for binding with 5-phenyl-1,4- benzodiazepin-2-one derivatives.
II. An electronegative group at 7-position of the ring A increases the functional anxiolytic activity.
III. Substitutions at 6, 8 or 9 position with electronegative group on ring A will decrease the functional anxiolytic activity.
IV. When Heterocycles used as ring A, drug shows poor pharmacological activity.
a) I, IV
b) I, II, IV
c) I, II, III, IV
d) II, III, IV
97. Type of ring structures present in the structure of Alprazolam?
a) Triazole
b) Benzene
c) Diazepine
d) All of the above
98. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug solifenacin?
I. Molecular weight is 308.8 gm/mol
II. Produces crystals from ethylacetate
III. Melting point is between 228-229°C
IV. Diazepine ring is present
a) TFTF
b) TTTT
c) FFFF d)FFFT
99. Binding of Diazepam with acetylcholine muscarinic receptors results in?
a) agonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
b) Antagonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
c) Do not produce any significant effect
d) Do not bind with muscarinic receptor
100. Therapeutic use of drug Diazepam is/are?
a) Treatment of Acute alcohol withdrawal
b) Treatment of seizures
c) Treatment of anxiety
d) All of the above
101. Which amongst the following are the correct statements with respect to the SAR of drug Diazepam?
I. Ring A should include an aromatic or heteroaromatic ring for binding with 5-phenyl-1,4- benzodiazepin-2-one derivatives.
II. An electronegative group at 7-position of the ring A increases the functional anxiolytic activity.
III. Substitutions at 6, 8 or 9 position with electronegative group on ring A will decrease the functional anxiolytic activity.
IV. When Heterocycles used as ring A, drug shows poor pharmacological activity.
a) I, IV
b) I, II, IV
c) I, II, III, IV
d) II, III, IV
102. Type of ring structures present in the structure of diazepam?
a) Quiniclidine
b) Quinoline
c) Diazepine
d) All of the above
103. Due to Potentiation of GABA receptors by Thiamylal?
a) Increase in opening duration of calcium channels
b) Increase in opening duration of the Chloride channels
c) Increase in opening duration of the Sodium channels
d) Decrease in opening duration of the calcium channels
104. Therapeutic use of drug Thiamylal is/are?
a) Induction of surgical anesthetics
b) Inducing drowsiness
c) Reducing anxiety
d) All of the above
105. Which amongst the following are the correct statements with respect to the SAR of drug Thiamylal
I. Tri-keto form is most stable in aqueous solution.
II. 4,6-dialcoholic tautomeric forms are least stable in aqueous solution.
III. 5,5-disubstituted barbituric acid is the prime requirement for the barbituares to be sedative hypnotics.
IV. Esterification of either of the 1,3-diazine nitrogens decreases hypnotic activity.
a) I, III, IV
b) II, IV
c) I, II, III
d) I, II, III, IV
106. The starting chemicals required for the synthesis of drug Thiamylal?
a) Malonic ester
b) Barbital
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
107. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug Thiamylal is?
I. Molecular weight is 254.35 g/mol II.It is present in liquid crystalline form
III. Melting point is 132.5oC
IV. No chiral carbons are present in the structure of barbital.
a) TFTF
b) TFFF
c) FFFT d)FTTF
108. Correct statements for the IUPAC nomenclatures of the drugs are?
I. Thiamylal: 5-(Pentan-2-yl)-5-(prop-2-en-1-yl)-2-sulfanylidenedihydropyrimidine-4,6(1H,5H)- dione.
II, Secobarbital: 5-(pentan-2-yl)-5-(prop-2-en-1-yl)-1,3-diazinane-2,4,6-trione
III. Quazepam: 5-butan-2-yl-5-ethyl-1,3-diazinane-2,4,6-trione
IV. Triazolam: 5-Ethyl-5-phenyl-1,3-diazinane-2,4,6-trione
a) II, III
b) II, IV
c) I, II, IV
d) I, II
109. Match the following drugs with their correct classifications-
i. Thiamylal A. Barbiturate sedative-hypnotic
ii. Zolpidem B.Benzazepine
iii. Olanzapine C. Nonbenzodiazepine agonist
iv. Oxazepam D. Benzodiazepine
a) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
b) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C
c) i-A, ii-D, iii-C, iv-B
d) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
110. Binding of Chlordiazepoxide with acetylcholine muscarinic receptors results in?
a) Agonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
b) Antagonizing effect on muscarinic receptors
c) Do not produce any significant effect
d) Do not bind with muscarinic receptor
111. Therapeutic use of drug Chlordiazepoxide is/are?
a) Treatment of Acute alcohol withdrawal
b) Relieving fear
c) Treatment of anxiety
d) All of the above
112. Type of ring structures present in the structure of Chlordiazepoxide?
a) Quiniclidine
b) Quinoline
c) Diazepine
d) All of the above
113. Correct sequence for the True/False for the physiochemical properties of the drug Chlordiazepoxide?
I. Molecular weight is 299.75 gm/mol
II. Yellow crystalline compound
III. Melting point is 236.2°C
IV. Diazepine ring is present
a) TFTF
b) TTTT
c) FFFF d)FFFT
114. Correct statements for the IUPAC nomenclatures of the drugs are?
I. Solifenacin: (3R)-1-Azabicyclo[2 2 2]oct-3-yl (1S)-1-phenyl-3,4-dihydroisoquinoline-2(1H)- carboxylate
II. Zaleplon: N-(3-(3-cyanopyrazolo[1,5-a] pyrimidin-7-yl)phenyl)-N-ethylacetamide
III. Alprazolam: 7-Chloro-1,3-dihydro-1-methyl-5-phenyl-3H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one
IV. Chlordiazepoxide: 8-Chloro-1-methyl-6-phenyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a] [1,4]benzodiazepine
a) II, IV
b) I, II
c) I, III, IV
d) I, II, III, IV
115. Match the following drugs with their correct classifications-
i. Solifenacin A. Barbiturate sedative-hypnotic
ii. Thiobarbital B. Benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic
iii. Chlordiazepoxide C. Acetylcholine antagonist
iv. Zaleplon D. Nonbenzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic
a) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
b) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
c) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B
d) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
116. Match the following of the drugs with their correct IUPAC names.
i. Pentobarbital
ii. Midazolam
A. 5-Ethyl-5-(1-methylbutyl)-2,4,6(1H,3H,5H)-pyrimidinetrione
B. N,N-Dimethyl-2-[6-methyl-2-(4-methylphenyl)imidazo[1,2- a]pyridin-3-yl]acetamide hemitartrate
iii. Zolpidem C. 8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-imidazo[1,5- a][1,4]benzodiazepine
iv. Alprazolam
D. 8-Chloro-1-methyl-6-phenyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a] [1,4]benzodiazepine
a) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
b) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
c) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B
d) i-B, ii-D, iii-C, iv-A
117. Correct sequence for True/false for the classification of the drug can be?
• Pentobarbital: benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic
• Quetipine : benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic
• Flurazepam: benzodiazepine
• Eszopiclone: butyrophenone
a) TFTF
b) FFTF
c) TFFF
d) FTFT
118. Triketo form of pentobarbital is?
a) Most stable in aqueous solution
b) Least stable in aqueous solution
c) Most soluble in organic solvent
d) Least soluble in organic solvent
119. The correct sequence for the steps for synthesis of drug pentobarbital from diethyl malanoate is?
I. Reaction with 2-bromopentane
II. Reaction with sodium ethoxide
III. Condensation with urea.
a) III – I – II
b) I – II – III
c) I – III – II
d) II – I – III
120. Side effect of drug Pentbarbital?
a) Insomnia
b) Loss of coordination
c) Nightmares
d) All of the above
Answer Key:
Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans Que Ans
1 D 21 E 41 B 61 A 81 C 101 C
2 B 22 D 42 B 62 B 82 D 102 C
3 C 23 D 43 D 63 A 83 D 103 B
4 A 24 D 44 A 64 C 84 B 104 D
5 D 25 A 45 C 65 A 85 B 105 D
6 C 26 C 46 C 66 A 86 B 106 A
7 B 27 A 47 D 67 A 87 A 107 A
8 E 28 B 48 D 68 A 88 B 108 D
9 B 29 D 49 D 69 D 89 A 109 A
10 E 30 D 50 C 70 B 90 C 110 D
11 E 31 C 51 C 71 C 91 D 111 D
12 A 32 C 52 B 72 B 92 B 112 C
13 D 33 A 53 B 73 B 93 C 113 B
14 E 34 A 54 A 74 A 94 D 114 B
15 D 35 A 55 C 75 C 95 C 115 A
16 A 36 D 56 C 76 D 96 C 116 B
17 B 37 A 57 A 77 A 97 D 117 C
18 D 38 D 58 A 78 B 98 B 118 A
19 B 39 C 59 C 79 B 99 D 119 D
20 C 40 D 60 D 80 C 100 D 120 D