1. Deflocculated suspensions usually have a suspend Ans. (B)
(A) With a high sedimentation rate
(B) That becomes compacted and difficult to redisperse after sedimentation
(C) That redisperses easily after sedimentation
(D) With a low suspendabilty
2. The formulation of pharmaceutical dosage form refers to Ans. (B)
(A) It’s compounding
(B) It’s constituents
(C) It’s design
(D) It’s application
3. Non-nutritive syrups for diabetic use may contain Ans. (A )
(A )sorbital
(B) Invert syrup
(C) Cane sugar (D)Milk sugar
4. Good manufacturing practice protocols in the production of pharmaceutical dosage forms ensures their
Ans. (D)
(A) potency
(B) purity
(C) quality
(D) any of the above
5. Which one of the following sweetener is ≈ 600times sweeter than sucrose Ans. (A)
(A) sucralose
(B) ace sulfame-k
(C) aspartame
(D) sodium cyclamate
6. The chemical name of ´’VEEGUM’’ commonly used in pharmaceutical dosage forms is (A)
(A) Magnesium aluminium silicate
(B) hydrated magnesium silicate
(C) hydrated aluminium silicate
(D) hydrated magnesium aluminium siliciate
7. The labelled expiry date of a pharmaceutical product determines its shelf-life and indicates the date
(B)
(A) From which it may still be dispensed for another six months
(B) Beyond which it should not be dispensed
C) one month prior to which it should not be dispensed
(D) from which the product may be used safely for a year
8. The aqueous solubility of poorly soluble drugs may be enhanced through the use of (D)
(A) co-solvent such as ethanol
(B) surfactant such as tween 20 (C)complexing agent such as cyclodextrin (D)All of the above
9. Sodium meta bisulphate is used in oral liquid dosage forms as (B)
(A) an antimicrobial agent
(B) an antioxidant
(C) an opacifying agent (D)An emulsifier
10. The movement of liquid medium through a bed of stationary charged particles under the influence of an applied potential difference known as
(B)
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) electro osmosis
(C) sedimentation potential
(D) streaming potential
TABLETS
11. The manufacture of tablets by direct compression entails a (B)
(A) Wetting and drying process
(B) Dry blending and compression process
(C) Dry granulation process (D)slugging process
12. A tablet’s ability to resist abrasion during handling is indicated by its (B)
(A) disintegration time
(B) friability index
(C) compressibility index
(D) hausner’s index
13. To ensure optimum and quick drug release, tablet formulations should contain an effective disintegrant such as
(C)
(A)corn starch (B)pregelatinized starch
(c)cross linked starch (D)hydrolyzed starch
14. Which one of the following drying method is commonly used in pharma industry for drying of tablet granules
(B)
(A)tunnel drying (B)fluid bed drying (C)microwave drying (D)freeze drying
15. Higher friability values of tablet resembles (D)
(A)use of deep concave punches (B)use of worn punch faces
(C)very dry granules containing less than 2% to 4% moisture (D)all of the above
16. Instruments have been developed for measuring tablet hardness includes (D)
(A)stokes tester (B)heberlein tester (C)vander kamp tester (D)all of the above
17. List of direct compressible diluents used in tablet formulation is given below except (A)
(A) hydrous lactose (B)spry dried lactose (C)anyhydrous lactose (D)starch 1500
18. Potential benefits associated with pharmaceutical granulation (D)
(A) an improvement in powder flow
(B) a reduction in capping tendencies
(C) an increase in bulk density
(D) all of the above
19. The acceptable weight loss in case of conventional tablets after friability test is about (A)
(A) less than 0.5 to1%
(B) more than 0.5 to 1 %
(C) less than 2 to 4%
(D) more than 2 to 4 %
20. Which one of the following test is performed to assure uniform potency for tablets of low dose drugs (C)
(A) friability test
(B) hardness test
(C) content uniformity test (D)disintegration test
21. List if sucrose based diluents used in tablet formulation are given below except (D)
(A) sugartab
(B) NU tab
(C) Di pac
(D) solutab
22. Which one of the following colours is not permitted to be used in drugs by the Drugs and cosmetics act 1940
(D)
(A) chlorophyll
(B) riboflavin
(C) tartrazine
(D) amaranth
23. PHARMA GEL is (B)
(A) cross linked starch
(B) pregelatinized starch
(C) hydrolyzed starch
(D) potao starch
24. which one of the following in a non-enteric material (D)
(A) cellulose acetate phthalate
(B) shellac
(C) hydroxyl propylmethyl cellulose phthalate
(D) Eudragit E
25. List of enteric polymers are given below except (A)
(A) Eudragit-E
(B) Eudragit-L
(C) Eudragit-S
(D) shellac
26. Fast-FLO is the trade name for (C)
(A) hydrous lactose
(B) anhydrous lactose
(C) spray dried lactose (D)hydroxy ethyl cellulose
27. Lactose is the most widely used diluents in the tablet formulation. However it is not used in the formulation of one o f the following
(D)
(A) pyrazinamide
(B) ibuprofen (C)sulphacetamide (D)isoniazid
28. List of non-enteric polymers are given below except (D)
(A) Eudragit-E
(B) Eudragit-RL
(C) Eudragit-RS
(D) Eudragit-S
29. Lozenges were originally termed as (A)
(A) pastilles
(B) pessaries (C)pilular extracts
(D) sluggs
30. Pick the odd one (D)
(A) Accela - cota
(B) Glatt-coater
(C) Hi-coater
(D) Pellegrini pan
31. In adequate spreading of the coating solution on tablet core before drying causes (C)
(A) blistering
(B) dull film (C)ornage-peel effect (D)cracking
32. Which one of the following is a cationic eudragit (D)
(A) Eudragit-L
(B) Eudragit-RL
(C) Eudragit¬-S
(D) Eudragit-E
33. Too rapid evaporation of the solvent from tablet coat may result (C)
(A) bloom
(B) dull film (C)blistering (D)hazing
34. which one of the following is non-ionic eudragit
(D)
(A) Eudragit-L
(B) Eudragit-S
(C) Eudragit-E
(D) Eudragit-RL
35. Which one of the following acrylic copolymers freely soluble in gastric fluid is (D)
(A) Eudragit RL
(B) Eudragit RS
(C) Eudragit L
(D) Eudragit E
36. ”Aerosil” is the trade name for (A)
(A) colloidal silica
(B) corn starch
(C) magnesium stearate
(D) mineral oil
37. Emdex and celutab are widely used direct compressible diluents which are (C)
(A) sucrose based diluents
(B) cellulose based diluents
(C) starch based diluents
(D) lactose based diluents
38. Which one of the followings does not take part in Maillard reaction (B)
(A) D-Mannose
(B) D-Mannitol
(C) D-Glucose (D)D-Lactose
39. Which one of the following is pH -dependent controlled release excipient (D)
(A) Eudragit-RL
(B) Eudragit-RS
(C) Hypromellose
(D) Eudragit-S
40. List of super disintegrants used in tablet manufacturing is given below except (D)
(A) Tablo
(B) solutab (C)polyplasdone XL (D)celutab
CAPSULES
41. Hard gelatin capsules may contain fill material comprised of (D)
(A) thermosetting mixtures
(B) granular mixtures
(C) cohesive powders
(D) any of the above
42. Soft gelatin capsules may be filled with (D)
(A) aqueous solution
(B) non-aqueous solution of pH below 2.5
(C) non-aqueous solution of pH above 7.5
(D) non-aqueous solution of pH between 2.5 to 7.5
43. Hard capsule shells may also made up of (A)
(A) hypromellose polymer
(B) carmellose sodium polymer (C)carbomer polymer
(D) all of the above
44. Asprin can not be dispensed as
(B)
(A) lozenges
(B) soft gel capsules (C)chewable tablets
(D) effervescent tablets
45. The solubility of gelatin capsules modified by treatment with (D)
(A) benzaldehyde
(B) vanillin
(C) formalin
(D) all of the above
46. Aldehyde tanning of gelatin capsule shells can be reduced by addition of (D)
(A) citral (B)chromic acid (C)citric acid (D)fumaric acid
47. Hard gelatin capsule shells made Brittle by addition of (D)
(A) benzaldehyde
(B) vanillin
(C) citral
(D) all of the above
48. The sealing temperature of gelatin films in the manufacturing of soft gel capsules is (A)
(A) 37 °C to 40 °C (B)35 °C or less
(C) 21 °C to 24 °C
(D) 57 °C to 60 °C
49. “Minim per gram” factor (M/G) of solid (S) in soft gelatin capsules refers
(A)
(A) volume in minims that is occupied by one gram of the solid plus the weight of liquid base required to make a capsulatable mixture
(B) number of grams of liquid base required to produce a capsulatable mixture when mixed with one gram of solid(S)
(C) number of grams of liquid base required to produce a capsulatable mixture when mixed with two gram of solid(S)
(D) all of the above
50. Soft gelatin capsule shells are incompatible with (D)
(A) liquids with extreme of pH
(B) aldehyde flavorants
(C) aspirin
(D) all of the above
51. Hypromellose capsule shells are advantageous than hard gelatin capsule shells in the following ways, except
(D)
(A) their change in dimensions with moisture content is less
(B) they do not undergo across linking reactions aldehydes
(C) encapsulate moisture sensitive medicaments
(D) shells becomes brittle when exposed to the formalin vapors
52. Soft gel capsules manufactured from ROTARY DIE process has content uniformity of (A)
(A) ±3%
(B) ±8%
(C) ±5% (D) ±0.1%
53. Soft gel capsules are manufactured by (D)
(A) plate process
(B) bubble method (C)rotary die method (D)all of the above
54. Granules for compression into tablets may be lubricated with (A)
(A) magnesium stearate
(B) magnesium sulphate
(C) magnesium phosphate
(D) magnesium carbonate
55. The friability test for tablets determines the (A)
(A) durability a tablet to with stand handling
(B) time taken for a tablet to disintegrate (C)rate at which drug release occurs
(D) none of the above
56. First stage of dissolution is performed for how many tablets (A)
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
57. Tablet core that is film coated usually have a (B)
(A) 50% gain in mass
(B) negligible gain in mass
(C) a two-fold gain in mass
(D) no mass gain
58. The solubility aid used in soft gelatin capsule manufacturing (D)
(A) ascorbic acid
(B) tartaric acid (C)succinic acid (D)fumaric acid
59. Which of the following alloy has least corrosion property (B)
(A) stainless steel 304
(B) stainless steel 316
(C) stainless steel 302
(D) stainless steel 304L
60. Pick the odd one (D)
(A) ACCOFILL (B)ROTOFILL (C)ROTOSORT (D)ACCOGEL
PARENTERALS
61. The tolerance for particulate matter in excess of 100 microns in diameter in large volume intravenous solution is
(A)
(A)zero (B)2%
(C) 5%
(D) 8%
62. In relation to blood plasma, large volume intravenous injections should be (A)
(A) isotonic (B)paratonic (C)hypotonic (D)hypertonic
63. the method of sterilization described as ‘Heating with a Bactericide’ entails
incorporating a bactericidal agent into the product and heating at
(A)
(A)98-100°C for 30 minutes (B)150°C for 60 minutes (C)200°C for 60minutes (D)56°C for 60minutes
64. laminar air flow systems may be used as a means to control air-borne particles in an aseptic environment through
(C)
(A) the creation of eddies
(B) pockets of turbulence which collect particulate matter
(C) unidirectional non turbulent air flow at a constant speed using high efficiency particulate air filters
(D) fluctuating air currents that sweep particles away
65. Intramuscular depot injections should have the following Rheological characteristics (B)
(A) dilatant behaviour
(B) thixotropic behaviour
(C) rheopectic behaviour
(D) shear thickening behaviour
66. Class 10,000 area is referred to (A)
(A) buffer area
(B) clean area
(C) aseptic area
(D) all of the above
67. Which one of the following operation is performed aseptic area (D)
(A) compounding of product
(B) process filtration
(C) aseptic gowning of personnel
(D) aseptic filling
68. Which one of the following is reconstituting vehicle for (C)
(A) water for injection
(B) sterile water for injection
(C) bacteriostatic water for injectio9n
(D) potable water
69. Local anesthetic agents are common excipients in the formulation of (B)
(A) I.V inj
(B) I.M inj
(C) I.C inj
(D) I.D inj
70. The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the following
(A)
(A) Inertial force to viscous force
(B) viscous force to inertial force
(C) gravitational force to viscous force (D)viscous force to gravitational force
71. Water, which is free from pyrogens is given below, except (D)
(A) BWFI, USP
(B) SWFI, USP
(C) WFI, USP
(D) purified water, USP
72. Water soluble antioxidants may also referred as (C)
(A) BLOCKING AGENTS
(B) SYNERGISTS (C)REDUCING AGENTS
(D) BULKING AGENTS
73. As per USP, an extraneous, mobile, undissolved substances other than gas bubbles unintentionally present in parenteral solutions, known as
(B)
(A) pyrogens
(B) particulate matter
(C) leakers
(D) endotoxin
74. List of co-solvents used in parenteral solutions are given below except (D)
(A) ethyl alcohol
(B) glycerin
(C) propyleneglycol (D)benzyl alcohol
75. Which on of the following tonicity modifier is not used in parenteral formulations (C)
(A) glycerin
(B) dextrose (C)boric acid
(D) sodium sulphate
76. Blocking agent ,which is commonly used in the formulation of non-aqueous parenteral preparation is
(A)
(A) propyl gallate
(B) sodium meta bi sulphate
(C) sodium bi sulphate
(D) thioglycolic acid
77. Oil soluble antioxidants may also referred as (D)
(A) blocking agent (B)true antioxidants
(C)free radical scavengers (D)all of the above
78. Cryprotectant used in freeze –dried parenterals (A)
(A)trehalose (B)mannitol (C)glycine (D)sorbitol
79. Vertrical laminar flow-hoods are required to protect personnel and environment from (D)
(A) infectious materials (B)noxious chemicals
(C) antineoplastic agents (D)all of the above
80 Co-solvent used in parenteral solutions is (A)
(A) ethyl alcohol (B)mannitol (C)sorbitol (D)benzylacohol
81. Class 1,00,000 area is referred as (A)
(A)clean area (B)aseptic area (C)buffer area (D)ware house
82. Mechanism behind the haemolysis of blood cells caused by hypotonic solutions (B)
(A) exo osmosis (B\) endo osmosis
(C) reverse osmosis
(D) electro osmosis
83. When the term “sterile dosage form” is used, it refers to a product (C)
(A) free from particular matter
(B) free from dissolved gases (C)free from living micro organisms
(D) free from pyrogens
84. The primary objective of the aseptic process is control and elimination of (A)
(A) viable contaminants (B)particulate contaminants (C)pyrogenic contaminants (D)all of the above
85. What will be the freezing point depression of isotonic dextrose solution (A)
(A) -0.52°C
(B) -0.12°C
(C) -0.09°C
(D -0.58°C
OPTHALMIC DOSAGE FORMS
86. The pressure required to push a gas through a liquid saturated filter is known as (A)
(A) bubble point
(B) flash point
(C) critical point
(D) krafft point
87. Chemically hard contact lens is (B)
(A) poly hydroxyl ethyl metha acrylate (B)poly methyal metha acrylate (C)poly metha acrylate
(D)poly acrylate
88. Which one of the followings may also referred as “artificial tears” (D)
(A) carbopol eye drops
(B) macrogol eye drops (C)carmellose sodium eye drops
(D) hypropmellose eye drops
89. Hypertonic solution will cause crenation of blood cells by (B)
(A) endo osmosis
(B) exo osmosis (C)reverse osmosis
(D) electro osmosis
90. The concentration of solute which causes rapid haemolysis of blood cells, known as (A)
(A) fragility point
(B) cloud point
(C) krafft point
(D) iso electric point
91. 5% Dextrose solution is isotonic with blood plasma, the fragility point should be (C)
(A) 1%
(B) 2% (C)2.5% (D)4%
92. Eye lens made up of ”poly hydroxyl ethyl methaacrylate” may also referred as (B)
(A) hard contact lens
(B) soft contact lens
(C) hydrophobic contact lens
(D) hygroscopic contact lens
93. The USP requirements for WFI are as follows, except (D)
(A) meets all the requirements for “purified water”
(B) is obtained by distillation and reverse osmosis
(C) contains not more than 0.25 USP endotoxin units per milliliter
(D) contains added substance
94. Which one of the following preservatives are unstable at autoclaving temperatures (C)
(A) quaternaty ammonium compounds
(B) organic mercurials
(C) parabens
(D) all of these
95. Which of the following requirements is not essential for dispensing of eye drops (D)
(A) isotonicity
(B) free from pyrogens (C)vehicle must be WFI
(D) all of the above
96. Most of the ophthalmic drugs are (A)
(A) acid salts of weak bases stabilized at acidic pH
(B) acid salts of weak bases stabilized at basic pH
(C) acid salts of weak bases stabilized at neutral pH
(D) acid salts of strong bases stabilized at acidic pH
97. In relation to sterilization, what is the meaning of D= 2 minutes (C)
(A) death of all micro organisms in 2 minutes
(B) death of all 50% organisms in 2 minutes
(C) death of all 90% organisms in 2 minutes
(D) death of all 10% organisms in 2 minutes
SEMI –SOLID DOSAGE FORMS INCLUDING COSMETICS AND SUPPOSITORIES
98. The chemical name of “collodion” commonly used in nail polish is (A)
(A) nitrocellulose
(B) polyethylene (C)poly acrylate (D)poly propyelene
99. ”Dose dumping” is one of the manifestation associated with (C)
(A) suspensions
(B) lozenges
(C) transdermal patches
(D) capsules
100. Pick the odd one (D)
(A) imhausen
(B) massupol (C)massa esterinum
(D) theobroma oil
101. The gels which are rich in liquid phase are known as (C)
(A)xerogels (B)organogels (C)jellies (D)magmas
102. The maximum amount of water that can be added to100gm of ointment base at a given temperature is known as
(C)
(A) Reynolds number (B)aggregation number (C)water number
(D) gold number
103. Cocoa butter is thought to be capable of existing in how many crystalline states (B)
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10
104. Calculate the displacement value of medicament in cocoa butter suppositories containing 40% medicament, prepared in 1gm suppository mould . The weight of 6 medicated suppositories is 8 gm
(A)
(A) 2.5
(B) 1.2
(C) 4.8
(D) 3.2
105. which band of UV radiation constitute the principle tissue damaging rays of the sun (B)
(A) UV-A
(B) UV-B
(C) UV-C
(D) all of the above
106. Which band of UV radiation is pigmentogenic but not erythemogenic (A)
(A) UV-A
(B) UV-B
(C) UV-C (D)none
117. UV-B(wave length between 290-310nm) rays are responsible for (D)
(A) photo degradation of drugs
(B) sun burns (C)tissue damage (D)all of the above
118. SUN tan preparations that protect the skin by UV absorption contains (D)
(A) trans stilbene
(B) salicylate
(C) benzo phenones
(D) all of the above
119. SUN tan preparations that protect the skin primarily by reflection of UV radiations contains
(A)
(A) smoked Mgo
(B) zinc oxide
(C) titanium dioxide
(D) all of the above
120. SUN tan preparations containing “zinc oxide” protect the skin from erythematic UV radiations primarily by
(C)
(A) reflection of UV-rays
(B) absorption of UV-rays
(C) scattering of UV-rays
(D) refraction of UV-rays
AEROSOLS
121. Propellant -1141 is the brand name for vinyl fluoride used in aerosol formulation, the fourth digit right refers
(A)
(A) number of double bonds
(B) number of carbon atoms -1
(C) number of hydrogen atoms +1
(D) number of fluorine atoms
122. In aerosol manufacturing, uncoated glass container must with stand a pressure of (A)
(A) less than 18 psig at 70°F
(B) less than 25 psig at 70°F
(C) less than 30 psig at 70°F
(D) 140 to 180 psig at 70 °F
123. The trade name for” chlorofluoro carbon “ refrigerants (D)
(A) freon
(B) ucon
(C) isotran
(D) all of the above
COMPLEXATION
124. Cyclodextrins are used in pharmaceutical applications for improving the bioavailability of drugs belongs to which class, according to the BCS classification
(B)
(A) class I
(B) class II
(C) class III
(D) class IV
125. A drug whose solubility is 1gm/lt in H2O when given orally at a dose of 250mg is absorbed up to 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class according to the BCS classificati9on
(A)
(A) class I
(B) class II
(C) class III
(D) class IV
126. According to the BCS classification, which class of drugs often considered as poor drug candidates for oral administration
(D)
(A) class I
(B) class II
(C) class III
(D) class IV
127. Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core known as
(C)
(A) cyclodextrins
(B) dextrans
(C) dendrimers
(D) liposomes
128. A ligand containing minimum two donor groups that always binds with central metal ion known as
(D)
(A) solubilizing agent (B)flocculating agent (C)wetting agent (D)chelating agent
129. As per BCS classification a drug is considered to be highly permeable (A)
(A) the extent of absorption in human is excepted to be >90% of the administered dose
(B) the extent of absorption in human is excepted to be <90% of the administered dose
(C) the extent of absorption in human is excepted to be >50% of the administered dose
(D) the extent of absorption in human is excepted to be<90% of the administered dose
130. As per BCS classification a drug is considered highly soluble when the highest dose strength is soluble in
(A)
(A)250ml or less of aqueous medium over the pH range of 1-8 (B)500ml or more of aqueous medium over the pH range of 1-8 (C)250ml or more of aqueous medium over the pH range of 1-8 (D)500ml or less of aqueous medium over the pH range of 1-8
NDDS
131. Globular submicroscopic vesicles composed of nonionic surfactants known as (B)
(A) liposomes
(B) niosomes (C)transfersomes (D)ethosames
132. A non –ionic surfactant that does not form Niosomes is (D)
(A) tween 20 (B)tween 40
(C) tween 60 (D)tween 80
133. Liposomal membrane is stabilized by addition of (D)
(A)cholesterol (B)cetyl phosphate (C)stearylamine (D)all of the above
134. Resealed erythrocytes are prepared by (A)
(A) endo osmosis (B)exo osomisis
(C)reverse osmosis (D)electro osmosis
135. macrophagial drug uptake depends on (D)
(A)particle size (B)particle surface charge
(C)particle surface hydrophobicity (D)all of the above
136 .Potential advantages of resealed erythrocytes are given below except (D)
(A)entraped drug is shielded from immunological detection (B)entraped drug is selectively targeted to either liver or spleen (C)they are biodegradable &non immunological
(D)they have long storage life of about 120days
137. List of micelle forming Amphiphiles are given below except ` (D)
(A) aerosol OT
(B) polysorbate 20
(C) BRIJ
(D) tween 20
138. Which one of the followings does not afford a Niosome (C)
(A) polyoxy ethylene alkyl ethers
(B) poly glycereol alkyl ethersw
(C) poly oxyethylene sorbitan mono oleate (D)all of the above
139. Liposomal membrane containing an edge activator such as sodium cholate are referred as
(A)
(A) transfersomes (B)ethosomes
(C) niosomes (D)pharmacosomes
140. Uni or multi lamellar vesicles of phospholipids are referred as (B)
(A) dendrimers (B)liposomes (C)nanoparticle (D)microparticles
PHARMACEUTICAL CALCULATIONS
141. The amount of sodiumchloride(M.WT 58gm) required to prepare one liter of a solution containing 50milli equivalents of sodium (Na+)
(A)
(A) 2.90 gm
(B) 0.290gm
(C) 290gm
(D) 0.029gm
142. If you mix 4parts of 40% with 1 part of 90% alcohol you will get (C)
(A)45.7% (B)40%
(C)50%
(D)57%
143. How many half-lives would it take for 100% degradation of drug which follows zero order kinetics
(C)
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 2
(D) indefinite
144. What will be the time required for 100% degradation of drug that follows first order kinetics
(D)
(A) 2 Hrs
(B) 5 Hrs
(C) 10Hrs (D)indefinite
145. In what proportion should 20% benzocain ointment be mixed with an ointment base to make 2.5% benzocain ointment
(B)
(A)2:3
(B)7:1
(C)1:9
(D)5:1
146. The dose of a drug is 5mg per kg body weight. How much of the drug is required for a body of 12year who weighs 21kg
(C)
(A) 0.5mg
(B) 1mg
(C) 1.5mg
(D) 2mg
147. Adult dose of a drug is 150mg/kg and the drug is available as tablets of 2mg strength.
Calculate the requirement for a boy age 14years, weighing 35kg (A)
(A)75mg (B)82mg (C)98mg (D)150mg
148. Adult dose of a drug is 173mg per square meter body surface area what will be the dose required for a boy of 0.75square meter body surface area
(D)
(A)200mg (B)173mg (C)73mg (D)75mg
149. Which one of the following rule is not applicable to dispense the dose for child based on age (D)
(A) young’s rule
(B) Dillings’ rule (C)Cowling’s rule (D)Catzel’s rule
150. If the pKa value of codeine is 7.9 &the pH of infected tissues is 8.9, the fraction of drug ionized form will be
(A)
(A) 10%
(B) 5%
(C) 50%
(D) 90%