GIT MCQ
1.For healing duodenal ulcer the usual duration of H2 blocker therapy is
(a) 4 weeks
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 8 weeks
(d) 12 weeks
2.What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers?
(a) It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers
(b) It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer
(c) It prevents gastro esophageal reflux
(d) Both (a) and (b)
3. The ‘acid neutralizing capacity’ of an antacid is governed by
(a) The equivalent weight of the antacid
(b) The pH of 1N solution of the antacid
(c) The rate at which the antacid reacts with HCl
(d) Both (a) and (c)
4. An antacid with the following property would be desirable in the treatment of peptic ulcer.
(a) Which raises gastric pH to 4.0
(b) Which raises gastric pH to 7.0
(c) Which increases gastric motility and hastens gastric emptying
(d) Both (b) and (c)
5. Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminum salts are superior to single component preparations because
(a) They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action
(b) They are less likely to affect gastric emptying
(c) They are less likely to alter bowel movement
(d) All of the above
6. In peptic ulcer, antacids are now primarily used for
(a) Prompt pain relief
(b) Ulcer healing
(c) Preventing ulcer relapse
(d) Control of bleeding from the ulcer
7. The following is a noncompetitive antagonist at the gastric j parietal cell H2
Receptor.
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Loxatidine
(c) Roxatidine
(d) Ranitidine
8. Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of
(a) Bromocriptine
(b) Levodopa
(c) Famotidine
(d) Cimetidine
9. Which histamine H2 blocker has maximum inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme?
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Ranitidine
(c) Roxatidine
(d) Famotidine
10. Which of the following is not an antiulcer drug
(a) Ranitidine
(b) Pantoprazole
(c) Ondansetron
(d) Propantheline
11. Ranitidine is mostly given by intravenous infusion for the following indication.
(a) Rapid relief of gastric ulcer pain
(b) Prophylaxis of gastric erosion in patients with extensive burns
(c) Zollinger Ellison syndrome
(d) Reflux oesophagitis
12. Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following manner.
(a) It is less potent
(b) It is shorter acting
(c) It does not have antiandrogenic action
(d) It produces more CNS side effects
13. Eradication of H pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefits.
(a) Faster relief of ulcer pain
(b) Faster ulcer healing
(c) Reduced chance of ulcer relapse
(d) Both (b) and (c)
14. The drugs employed for anti H pylori therapy include the following except
(a) Pyrantel pamoate
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Tinidazole
(d) Amoxicillin
15. The following class of gastric antisecretory drug have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effects on acid and pepsin content, and also reduce gastric motility.
(a) Histamine H2 blockers
(b) Anticholinergics
(c) Proton pump inhibitors
(d) Prostaglandins
16. The following drug is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump.
(a) Carbenoxolone sodium
(b) Sucralfate
(c) Famotidine
(d) Lansoprazole
17. Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because
(a) In transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice
(b) Its active forms have selective affinity for the H+K+ ATP ase located in the apical canaliculi of gastric parietal cells
(c) Its cationic forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi
(d) All of the above
18. The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is
(a) Omeprazole
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Pirenzepine
(d) Misoprostol
19. The primary mechanism by whichm prostaglandins promote ulcer healing is
(a) Inhibition of gastric secretion
(b) Augmentation of bicarbonate buffered mucus layer covering gastroduodenal mucosa
(c) Decreased bicarbonate secretion in gastric juice
(d) Increased turnover of gastric mucosal cell
20. Which of the following statements is true about misoprostol?
(a) It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing
(b) It heals nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers
(c) It produces fewer side effects than H2 blockers
(d) It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse
21. Sucralfate promotes healing of duodenal ulcer by
(a) Enhancing gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion
(b) Coating the ulcer and preventing the action of acid-pepsin on ulcer base
(c) Promoting regeneration of mucosa
(d) Both (a) and (b)
22. Antacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antiulcer drug.
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Misoprostol
(c) Sucralfate
(d) Pirenzepine
23. The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is
(a) Low ulcer healing efficacy
(b) Poor relief of ulcer pain
(c) High incidence of side effects
(d) Need for taking a big tablet four times a day
24. The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is
(a) Maintenance antacid regimen
(b) Maintenance H2 blocker regimen
(c) On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen
(d) Maintenance sucralfate regimen
25. Used as a laxative, liquid paraffin has the following drawbacks except
(a) It interferes with absorption of fat soluble vitamins
(b) It is unpleasant to swallow
(c) It causes gripping
(d) It may produce foreign body granulomas
26. Which of the following is a irritant laxative
(a) Docusates
(b) Castor oil
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Lactulose
27. The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy.
(a) Bisacodyl
(b) Liquid paraffin
(c) Lactulose
(d) Magnesium sulfate
28. Select the purgative that should not be taken at bed time.
(a) Ispaghula
(b) Bisacodyl
(c) Senna
(d) Magnesium sulfate
29. What is the drug of choice for dysentery
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Morphine
(c) Loperamide
(d) Ciprofloxacin
30. The most suitable laxative for a patient of irritable bowel syndrome with spastic constipation is
(a) Dietary fibre
(b) Liquid paraffin
(c) Bisacodyl
(d) Senna
31. The success of oral rehydration therapy of diarrhoea depends upon the following process in the intestinal mucosa.
(a) Sodium pump mediated Na+ absorption
(b) Glucose coupled Na+ absorption
(c) Bicarbonate coupled Na+ absorption
(d) Passive Na+ diffusion secondary to nutrient absorption
32. Saline laxatives containing magnesium
(a) Reduce the secretion of cholecystokinin
(b) Are more effective when administered on an empty stomach
(c) Are commonly used in the treatment in functional constipation
(d) Are safe in patients with impaired renal function
33. Antimotility drugs are contraindicated in
(a) Mild traveler’s diarrhoea
(b) Acute infective diarrhoeas
(c) Ileostomy patients
(d) Patients after anal surgery
34. Octreotide
(a) Has a short half-life of 2 minutes
(b) Is given orally three times in a day
(c) Is useful in carcinoid syndrome
(d) Increases intestinal smooth muscle contractility
35. Therapy of choice in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is
(a) Omeprazole
(b) Ranitidine
(c) Sucralfate
(d) Carbenoxolone sodium
36. Misoprostol
(a) Is helpful in preventing ulcers induced by NSAIDs
(b) Can cause constipation
(c) Does not inhibit acid secretion
(d) Can delay labor in a pregnant woman
37. Ranitidine is a new histamine receptor blocker. It is
(a) Less potent, non-competitive but selective antagonist of histamine at gastric site than cimetidine
(b) More potent, non-selective and most toxic histamine antagonist of histamine at gastric site
(c) More potent, competitive and selective antagonist of histamine at gastric site
(d) None of the above
38. All of the following are antiemetics except
(a) Hyoscine
(b) Apomorphine
(c) Granisetron
(d) Domperidone
39. Antacids should not be prescribed concurrently with
(a) Ranitidine
(b) Pirenzipine
(c) Sucralfate
(d) Omeprazole
40. All of the following are emetics except
(a) Ipecac
(b) Apomorphine
(c) Octreotide
(d) Mustard
41. Which of the following is not an antacid
(a) Calcium citrate
(b) Aluminium hydroxide
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
42. The most dependable emetic used to expel ingested poisons is
(a) Intramuscular emetine
(b) Oral syrup ipecacuanha
(c) Intramuscular apomorphine
(d) Oral bromocriptine
43. The most effective antimotion sickness drug suitable for journies is
(a) Promethazine
(b) Cetrizine
(c) Cisapride
(d) Cannabinoids
44. In case of hill journey, antimotion sickness drugs are best administered at
(a) Twelve hours before commencing journey
(b) One hour before commencing journey
(c) Immediately after commencing journey
(d) At the first feeling of motion sickness
45. Metaclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has
(a) Anticholinergic action
(b) Antihistaminic action
(c) Antiadrenergic action
(d) Antidopaminergic action
46. Which prokinetic drug(s) produce(s) extrapyramidal side effects?
(a) Metaclopramide
(b) Cisapride
(c) Tegaserod
(d) Mosapride
47. A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying?
(a) Methylpolysiloxane
(b) Promethazine
(c) Metaclopramide
(d) Apomorphine
48. Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action ?
(a) Metaclopramide
(b) Cisapride
(c) Domperidone
(d) Ondansetron
49. Which of the following is not an antidiarrhoeal agent
(a) Pirenzepine
(b) Atropine
(c) Morphine
(d) Diphenoxylate
50. Cisapride enhances gastrointestinal motility by
(a) Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor
(b) Blocking muscarinic M3 receptor
(c) Activating serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
(d) Blocking dopamine D2 receptor
GIT- KEY
1.C
2.A
3.D
4.A
5.D
6.A
7.D
8.D
9.A
10.C
11.B
12.C
13.D
14.A
15.B
16.D
17.D
18.A
19.B
20.B
21.B
22.C
23.D
24.B
25.C
26.B
27.C
28.D
29.D
30.A
31.B
32.B
33.B
34.C
35.A
36.A
37.C
38.B
39.C
40.C
41.A
42.C
43.A
44.B
45.D
46.A
47.C
48.C
49.A
50.A